A nurse is caring for four hospitalized clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being at risk for fluid volume deficit?
The client who has end-stage renal failure and is scheduled for dialysis today.
The client who has been NPO since midnight for endoscopy.
The client who has left-sided heart failure and has a brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 600 pg/mL.
The client who has gastroenteritis and is febrile.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. The client who has gastroenteritis and is febrile.
Choice A rationale:
The client with end-stage renal failure scheduled for dialysis would not be at risk for fluid volume deficit because dialysis is a treatment that removes waste, salt, and extra water to prevent them from building up in the body, keeping a safe level of certain chemicals in the blood, and controlling blood pressure.
Choice B rationale:
Being NPO (nothing by mouth) since midnight for endoscopy typically involves a short period of fasting. While it could potentially contribute to a mild fluid volume deficit, it is not as significant as other causes like vomiting or diarrhea, which can lead to more substantial fluid losses.
Choice C rationale:
A client with left-sided heart failure and an elevated BNP level is more likely to experience fluid volume overload rather than a deficit. BNP is released in response to ventricular volume expansion and pressure overload, which are indicative of heart failure, not fluid volume deficit.
Choice D rationale:
The client with gastroenteritis and a fever is at risk for fluid volume deficit due to increased fluid losses from vomiting, diarrhea, and fever-induced perspiration. These symptoms align with the common risk factors for fluid volume deficit, which include vomiting, diarrhea, and sweating.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Client has an NG tube to gastric suction.
Choice A rationale:
Having an NG tube to gastric suction can lead to hypokalemia because the suctioning process removes potassium from the stomach contents, leading to a decrease in serum potassium levels.
Choice B rationale:
While a history of alcohol abuse disorder can lead to various electrolyte imbalances, it is not the most direct cause of hypokalemia compared to gastric suction.
Choice C rationale:
Drinking 3.5 to 4 liters of water each day can lead to dilutional hyponatremia but is less likely to cause hypokalemia directly.
Choice D rationale:
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium in the body. Therefore, it is not a causative factor for hypokalemia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: Reduction of T-wave amplitude.
Choice A rationale:
The amplitude of the QRS complex is not directly affected by changes in serum potassium levels. It represents ventricular depolarization, and its restoration would not be an expected outcome of polystyrene sulfonate treatment
Choice B rationale:
Shortening of the P-wave duration is not an expected change with polystyrene sulfonate treatment. The P-wave represents atrial depolarization, which is not significantly impacted by the administration of this medication
Choice C rationale:
Widening of the QRS complex is associated with high serum potassium levels. The goal of polystyrene sulfonate treatment is to lower potassium levels and, thus, return the QRS complex to its normal width
Choice D rationale:
Polystyrene sulfonate aims to reduce serum potassium levels. When effective, this should result in a reduction of T-wave amplitude, which is a common ECG change seen with hyperkalemia
In conclusion, choice D is the correct answer, as a reduction in T-wave amplitude would be the expected change on the client's ECG if polystyrene sulfonate effectively lowers their serum potassium level.
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