A nurse is caring for a client in the second prenatal visit, the laboratory findings indicate a negative rubella titer. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?
The client is immune to the rubella virus.
Administer the first dose of rubella vaccine at this time.
The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time
The client requires a rubella immunization in post-partum
The Correct Answer is D
a. A negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella.
b. Rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy.
c. A negative rubella titer does not indicate whether the client is currently experiencing a rubella infection.
d. A negative rubella titer means that the client does not have antibodies against the rubella virus, which can cause congenital defects in the fetus if the mother gets infected during pregnancy. Therefore, the client should receive the rubella vaccine after delivery, when it is safe to do so.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
a. In this case, the woman is pregnant for the fourth time, so her gravidity is 4.
She has one child born at 39 weeks, another child born at 40 weeks, and one child born at 36.2 weeks. The first two are considered term births, and the last one is considered a preterm birth. Therefore, her term is 1 and her preterm is 2. She has no abortions, so her abortion is 0. She has three living children, so her living children is 3. Hence, her GTPAL is 4-2-1-0-3.
b. This indicates 1 full-term pregnancy, 1 preterm pregnancy, and 3 living child.
c. This would indicate 1 full-term pregnancy, 2 preterm pregnancies, and 3 living children.
d. 4-3-0-0-3: This would indicate 3 full-term pregnancies and 3 living children.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a. This is not the correct choice because the woman has signs of magnesium toxicity, such as low urine output, high blood pressure, and increased DTR. Continuing the infusion could worsen her condition and put her and the fetus at risk.
b. This is the correct choice because the woman needs to be treated for magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Stopping the infusion will prevent further accumulation of magnesium in her body and allow her to excrete the excess.
c. This is not the correct choice because it will delay the treatment of magnesium toxicity, which is a medical emergency. The woman's vital signs and symptoms are enough to indicate that she has a high level of magnesium and needs immediate intervention.
d. This is not the correct choice because it will not address the underlying cause of magnesium toxicity, which is the infusion. Oxygen may help with some symptoms, such as respiratory depression, but it will not reverse the effects of magnesium on the nervous system and blood vessels.
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