A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department (ED)
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Rationale for correct choices:
- Opioid intoxication: The client exhibits classic signs of opioid overdose, including shallow respirations, bradypnea, bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, slurred speech, and constricted pupils. These findings, combined with a history of oxycodone use, indicate opioid intoxication requiring immediate intervention.
- Obtain a prescription for naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the respiratory depression, sedation, and other life-threatening effects of opioid overdose. Timely administration can prevent respiratory failure and death.
- Prepare to initiate mechanical ventilation: The client’s respiratory rate is critically low (10/min) with oxygen saturation at 90%, indicating inadequate ventilation. Mechanical ventilation may be required to maintain oxygenation and prevent hypoxia while naloxone takes effect.
- Pupillary reaction: Monitoring pupillary constriction or dilation helps assess the client’s response to opioid reversal therapy and can indicate ongoing central nervous system depression or improvement.
- Respiratory rate: Continuous monitoring of respiratory rate is essential because hypoventilation is the most immediate life-threatening effect of opioid intoxication. Changes indicate whether interventions like naloxone or ventilation are effective.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Alcohol intoxication: Although the client has a history of alcohol use disorder, the current symptoms of miosis, hypoventilation, and hypotension are more consistent with opioid toxicity rather than acute alcohol intoxication.
- Opioid withdrawal: Withdrawal presents with agitation, tachypnea, hypertension, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, and GI upset. This client’s bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoventilation indicate intoxication, not withdrawal.
- Stimulant intoxication: Stimulant overdose typically presents with hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia, and agitation. The client’s hypotension, bradycardia, and CNS depression are inconsistent with stimulant use.
- Anticipate administering clonidine: Clonidine is used for opioid withdrawal management, not acute intoxication. Administering it in this scenario would not address the life-threatening hypoventilation or CNS depression.
- Collect a blood sample for ethanol level: While it may be helpful for history, ethanol testing does not address the immediate life-threatening opioid overdose and is not a priority intervention.
- Obtain prescription for restraints: There is no indication for restraints. The client’s symptoms are due to CNS depression, and restraints would not improve their condition and could worsen injury risk.
- Hyperreflexia: This is a sign of opioid withdrawal or CNS stimulant activity, not opioid intoxication. The client’s deep tendon reflexes are decreased, consistent with CNS depression.
- Cardiac arrhythmias: While arrhythmias can occur, there is no evidence in this assessment of dysrhythmias. Monitoring vital signs and oxygenation is more immediately critical.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Skin cool to touch: Cool skin is more commonly associated with shock states or severe peripheral vasoconstriction, not with a hypertensive crisis. In hypertensive crisis, the client is more likely to have warm skin due to increased circulation from elevated blood pressure.
B. Jugular vein distention: While jugular vein distention can occur in right-sided heart failure or severe fluid overload, it is not a hallmark manifestation of hypertensive crisis. The acute issue in hypertensive crisis is extreme elevation in blood pressure with end-organ effects.
C. Headache: Severe headache is a common and classic symptom of hypertensive crisis due to sudden, extreme elevations in blood pressure causing increased ICP and cerebral vessel stress. It often signals an urgent need for BP control to prevent complications such as stroke.
D. Weak peripheral pulses: Weak pulses are more often associated with low cardiac output or severe arterial obstruction. In hypertensive crisis, peripheral pulses are typically bounding and strong because of the elevated systemic vascular resistance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A client who is taking warfarin and has started to breastfeed: Warfarin passes into breast milk in very small amounts and is generally considered compatible with breastfeeding. However, the infant’s coagulation status should be monitored, and follow-up with the healthcare provider is appropriate to ensure safety.
B. A client who is taking bumetanide and reports an increase in urinary frequency: Increased urination is an expected pharmacologic effect of loop diuretics like bumetanide. This finding does not require follow-up unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
C. A client who received a Mantoux test 48 hr ago and has an induration: A positive Mantoux test requires interpretation by a healthcare provider, but the presence of induration alone is a normal finding that triggers standard follow-up for tuberculosis screening.
D. A client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy and is taking sodium phosphate: Sodium phosphate is commonly used as a bowel prep for colonoscopy. As long as the client follows the prescribed instructions and has no contraindications, this does not require additional follow-up.
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