A nurse is assisting to collect data for a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which of the following should the nurse check during a neuromuscular assessment? (Select all that apply.)
Heel to ear
Popliteal angle
Moro reflex
Scarf sign
Arm recoil
Correct Answer : A,B,D,E
Choice A reason:
Heel to ear is a test that measures the flexibility of the newborn's hip and knee joints. The nurse should gently flex the newborn's hip and knee and bring the foot toward the ear on the same side. The closer the foot is to the ear, the higher the score. This test is part of the neuromuscular assessment for gestational age.
Choice B reason:
Popliteal angle is a test that measures the angle of flexion at the knee joint. The nurse should flex the newborn's hip and knee at 90 degrees and then extend the lower leg until resistance is felt. The smaller the angle, the higher the score. This test is also part of the neuromuscular assessment for gestational age.
Choice C reason:
Moro reflex is a test that evaluates the newborn's startle response. The nurse should hold the newborn in a semi-sitting position and then allow the head to fall back slightly. The newborn should extend and abduct the arms and legs, then flex and adduct them. This test is not part of the neuromuscular assessment for gestational age, but rather a reflex assessment for neurological function. •
Choice D reason:
Scarf sign is a test that measures the flexibility of the newborn's shoulder and elbow joints. The nurse should draw one of the newborn's arms across the chest toward the opposite shoulder. The farther the elbow can be moved across the body, the lower the score. This test is part of the neuromuscular assessment for gestational age.
Choice E reason:
Arm recoil is a test that measures the degree of flexion at the elbow joint. The nurse should extend both of the newborn's arms for 5 seconds and then release them. The arms should return to a flexed position quickly and fully. The faster and more complete the recoil, the higher the score. This test is part of the neuromuscular assessment for gestational age.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
This statement is not appropriate because it does not provide any information or education to the client who wants to know about VBAC. It also implies that the nurse does not have any knowledge or expertise on the topic, which may undermine the client's trust and confidence in the nurse.
Choice B reason:
This statement is not appropriate because it is not evidence-based and may discourage the client from considering VBAC as a possible option. According to research, VBAC is associated with fewer complications than an elective repeat C-section for many women who had prior
cesarean deliveries. A repeat C-section also carries risks such as infection, bleeding, injury to organs, and placental problems in future pregnancies.
Choice C reason:
This statement is appropriate because it is accurate and informative. The type of uterine incision used for the prior C-section is one of the most important factors that determine the eligibility and success of VBAC. A low transverse or low vertical incision is usually compatible with VBAC, while a high vertical (classical) incision is not recommended due to the risk of uterine rupture.
Choice D reason:
This statement is not appropriate because it dismisses the client's concern and does not address their question. It also implies that the nurse does not respect the client's autonomy and right to make informed decisions about their care. The client may benefit from learning about VBAC early in their pregnancy so that they can weigh the pros and cons and discuss their preferences with their provider.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administering methylergometrine to the client is not the first action the nurse should take. Methylergometrine is a medication that stimulates uterine contractions and can help reduce postpartum bleeding. However, it can also cause hypertension and should be used with caution in clients with high blood pressure. Furthermore, the nurse should first identify and address the cause of the boggy and deviated fundus before giving any medication.
Choice B reason:
Assisting the client to void is the first action the nurse should take. A full bladder can displace the uterus and prevent it from contracting properly, leading to uterine atony and bleeding.
The nurse should help the client empty her bladder by encouraging her to use the bathroom, providing privacy, running water, or using a bedpan. This can help the uterus return to its normal position and tone.
Choice C reason:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the first action the nurse should take. A urinary catheter can be used to drain the bladder if the client is unable to void or has a large amount of residual urine. However, it can also increase the risk of infection and trauma to the urethra
and bladder. The nurse should first try noninvasive methods to help the client void, such as those mentioned in choice B.
Choice D reason:
Obtaining a stat hemoglobin level is not the first action the nurse should take. A hemoglobin level can indicate the extent of blood loss and the need for transfusion or other interventions. However, it is not a priority over restoring uterine tone and preventing further bleeding. The nurse should first assist the client to void and then massage the fundus if it remains boggy.
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