A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who had a vaginal birth 2 hours ago. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
Document fundal height
Observe the lochia during palpation of fundus
Massage a firm fundus
Determine whether the fundus is midline
Administer terbutaline if the fundus is boggy
Correct Answer : A,B,D
Choice A:
Document fundal height. This is a correct action because the nurse should monitor the involution of the uterus by measuring the fundal height and comparing it to the expected level. The fundus should descend about one fingerbreadth (1 cm) per day after delivery and be at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth.
Choice B:
Observe the lochia during palpation of the fundus. This is a correct action because the nurse should assess the amount, color, and consistency of the lochia (vaginal discharge) during the fundal massage. The lochia should change from rubra (red) to serosa (pink) to alba (white) over time and not increase in amount or revert to a previous stage.
Choice C:
Massage a firm fundus. This is an incorrect action because a firm fundus indicates adequate uterine contraction and involution. Massaging a firm fundus can cause discomfort and bleeding for the client. The nurse should only massage a boggy (soft) fundus to stimulate contraction and prevent hemorrhage.
Choice D:
Determine whether the fundus is midline. This is a correct action because the nurse should check if the fundus is deviated to either side, which may indicate a full bladder. A full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction and cause bleeding or infection. The nurse should assist the client to void if the fundus is not midline.
Choice E:
Administer terbutaline if the fundus is boggy. This is an incorrect action because terbutaline is a tocolytic drug that relaxes the uterine muscle and inhibits contractions. It is used to stop preterm labor, not to treat postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should administer oxytocin or other uterotonic drugs if the fundus is boggy and does not respond to massage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
This is a normal WBC for a newborn. According to MedlinePlus, the normal amount of white blood cells (WBCs) found in the bloodstream of a newborn infant is between 4,500 and 10,000 per microliter of blood. The reference ranges for WBC count established by Mayo Medical Laboratories for infants from birth to 2 years are as follows:.
• Birth: 9.0 to 30.0 x 10 9 /L.
• 1 to 7 days: 9.4 to 34.0 x 10 9 /L.
• 8 to 14 days: 5.0 to 21.0 x 10 9 /L.
• 15 days to 1 month: 5.0 to 20.0 x 10 9 /L.
• 2 to 5 months: 5.0 to 15.0 x 10 9 /L. Therefore, a newborn's WBC of 15,000 is within the normal range and does not indicate any problem.
Choice B reason:
You must call the doctor. This is not a correct answer because there is no need to call the doctor for a normal WBC in a newborn. Calling the doctor unnecessarily may cause anxiety and a waste of time and resources.
Choice C reason:
This indicates a severe infection. This is not a correct answer because a WBC of 15,000 does not necessarily indicate a severe infection in a newborn. A high WBC, also called leukocytosis, may be related to infection, but it can also be caused by other factors such as stress, inflammation, trauma, medication, or blood disorders. Moreover, the type and severity of infection can be better assessed by looking at the differential count of the different types of white blood cells (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes) and other signs and symptoms.
Choice D reason:
This is a lab error. This is not a correct answer because a WBC of 15,000 is not likely to be a lab error in a newborn. Lab errors can occur due to improper collection, handling, or analysis of blood samples, but they are rare and usually detected by quality control measures. A WBC of 15,000 is within the normal range for a newborn and does not require repeating the test unless there is a strong suspicion of an error or an inconsistency with other results or clinical findings.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Smoking is the most significant risk factor for clubfoot, according to several studies that have found a strong association between maternal smoking during pregnancy and the occurrence of clubfoot in the offspring. Smoking may affect the development of the muscles and tendons in the fetus, leading to abnormal positioning of the foot.
Choice B reason:
Trauma during pregnancy is not a significant risk factor for clubfoot, as there is no evidence that physical injury to the mother or the fetus can cause this deformity. Clubfoot is a congenital condition that is present at birth and usually detected by prenatal ultrasound.
Choice C reason:
Hypertension is not a significant risk factor for clubfoot, as there is no evidence that high blood pressure in the mother or the fetus can cause this deformity. Clubfoot is a congenital condition that is present at birth and usually detected by prenatal ultrasound.
Choice D reason:
Decreased circulation is not a significant risk factor for clubfoot, as there is no evidence that poor blood flow to the mother or the fetus can cause this deformity. Clubfoot is a congenital condition that is present at birth and usually detected by prenatal ultrasound.
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