A nurse is collecting data from a client who gave birth 12 hours ago. The nurse notes the fundus is deviated to the right, boggy, and 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Administer methylergometrine to the client.

Assist the client to void.

Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

Obtain a stat hemoglobin level.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason:

Administering methylergometrine to the client is not the first action the nurse should take. Methylergometrine is a medication that stimulates uterine contractions and can help reduce postpartum bleeding. However, it can also cause hypertension and should be used with caution in clients with high blood pressure. Furthermore, the nurse should first identify and address the cause of the boggy and deviated fundus before giving any medication.

Choice B reason:

Assisting the client to void is the first action the nurse should take. A full bladder can displace the uterus and prevent it from contracting properly, leading to uterine atony and bleeding.

The nurse should help the client empty her bladder by encouraging her to use the bathroom, providing privacy, running water, or using a bedpan. This can help the uterus return to its normal position and tone.

Choice C reason:

Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the first action the nurse should take. A urinary catheter can be used to drain the bladder if the client is unable to void or has a large amount of residual urine. However, it can also increase the risk of infection and trauma to the urethra

and bladder. The nurse should first try noninvasive methods to help the client void, such as those mentioned in choice B.

Choice D reason:

Obtaining a stat hemoglobin level is not the first action the nurse should take. A hemoglobin level can indicate the extent of blood loss and the need for transfusion or other interventions. However, it is not a priority over restoring uterine tone and preventing further bleeding. The nurse should first assist the client to void and then massage the fundus if it remains boggy.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

This is a caput succedaneum, which is a collection of fluid from pressure of the vacuum extractor. This is the correct answer because caput succedaneum is a swelling of the scalp that crosses the suture line and is caused by prolonged pressure on the baby's head during delivery. It can also result from the use of vacuum extraction or forceps. Caput succedaneum is harmless and usually resolves on its own within a few days.

Choice B reason:

This is erythema toxicum, which is a transient allergic reaction that causes edema in the skin. This is incorrect because erythema toxicum is a common rash that affects newborns, but it does not cause swelling of the scalp or cross the suture line. It appears as red blotches with small white or yellow bumps that can occur anywhere on the body. Erythema toxicum is also harmless and usually disappears within a week.

Choice C reason:

This is a cephalhematoma, which will resolve on its own in 3 to 5 days. This is incorrect because cephalhematoma is bleeding under the scalp that does not cross the suture line and is caused by ruptured blood vessels in the scalp. It can also result from the use of vacuum extraction or forceps. Cephalhematoma may take weeks or months to resolve and can increase the risk of jaundice.

Choice D reason:

This is a Mongolian spot, which is found on many newborns. This is incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray patches of skin that are present at birth and are caused by melanocytes (pigment-producing cells) that are trapped in the deeper layers of the skin. They are not related to swelling or pressure on the head and usually fade by age 5.

A. A prior vaginal delivery. B. Gestation of 42 weeks. C. Maternal obesity. D. One prior cesarean delivery. E. Macrosomic fetus.

Correct Answer is ["C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason:

A prior vaginal delivery is not a contraindication for VBAC. In fact, it is a positive predictor of success for VBAC, as it indicates that the woman has a proven pelvis and can tolerate labor.

Choice B reason:

The gestation of 42 weeks is not a contraindication for VBAC. However, it is associated with an increased risk of stillbirth while awaiting spontaneous labor, which should be balanced against the risks of induction of labor or elective repeat cesarean.

Choice C reason:

Maternal obesity is a relative contraindication for VBAC. It is associated with a lower success rate of VBAC, a higher risk of uterine rupture, and a higher risk of maternal and neonatal complications. The decision to attempt VBAC in obese women should be made on a case-by-case basis by a senior obstetrician.

Choice D reason:

One prior cesarean delivery is not a contraindication for VBAC. Most women who have had one prior lower segment cesarean delivery are eligible for VBAC, as the risk of uterine rupture is low (0.5%) and the success rate is high (72-75%).

Choice E reason:

A macrosomic fetus is a relative contraindication for VBAC. It is associated with a lower success rate of VBAC, a higher risk of uterine rupture, and a higher risk of shoulder dystocia and birth trauma. The decision to attempt VBAC in women with suspected macrosomia should be made on a case-by-case basis by a senior obstetrician.

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A nurse is collecting data from a client who gave birth 12 hours ago. The nurse notes the fundus is deviated to the right, boggy, and 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a newborn who was delivered by vacuum extraction and has swelling on his head that crosses the suture line. The newborn's mother asks about the swelling on her newborn's head. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which of the following are contraindications for VBAC? (Select All that Apply.).

Correct Answer is ["C","E"]

Explanation

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