A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Decrease the infusion rate on the IV.
Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication.
Change the IV infusion site.
Apply cold compresses to the neck area.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Decrease the Infusion Rate on the IV
Decreasing the infusion rate on the IV is the appropriate action to take when a client experiences flushing of the neck and tachycardia while receiving vancomycin. These symptoms are indicative of vancomycin flushing syndrome (VFS), also known as “red man syndrome,” which is a reaction caused by the rapid infusion of vancomycin. Slowing the infusion rate allows the body more time to metabolize the drug and can help alleviate the symptoms.
Choice B reason: Document that the Client Experienced an Anaphylactic Reaction to the Medication
Documenting that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction is not accurate in this scenario. Vancomycin flushing syndrome is an anaphylactoid reaction, not an anaphylactic one. Anaphylactoid reactions are not mediated by IgE antibodies and do not require prior sensitization to the drug. Therefore, it is important to distinguish between the two and document the reaction correctly.
Choice C reason: Change the IV Infusion Site
Changing the IV infusion site is not necessary in this case. The symptoms of flushing and tachycardia are related to the rate of vancomycin infusion, not the site of infusion. Therefore, changing the site would not address the underlying issue.
Choice D reason: Apply Cold Compresses to the Neck Area
Applying cold compresses to the neck area may provide some symptomatic relief, but it does not address the root cause of the reaction. The primary intervention should be to slow the infusion rate to prevent further release of histamine and alleviate the symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["15"]
Explanation
Step 1: Determine the dosage available per mL.
- The available dosage is 75 mg per 5 mL.
- To find the dosage per mL, divide 75 mg by 5 mL.
- 75 mg ÷ 5 mL = 15 mg/mL.
- Result: 15 mg/mL.
Step 2: Determine how many mL are needed for the prescribed dose.
- The prescribed dose is 225 mg.
- To find the required mL, divide 225 mg by the dosage per mL (15 mg/mL).
- 225 mg ÷ 15 mg/mL = 15 mL.
- Result: 15 mL.
So, the nurse should administer 15 mL of clindamycin palmitate oral suspension every 8 hours.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Stop taking the pills and switch to a different contraceptive method: This is not necessary for a single missed dose. Stopping the pills entirely and switching methods would be an overreaction and could lead to unnecessary complications. The standard recommendation for a missed dose is to take it as soon as remembered and continue with the regular schedule.
Choice B reason:
Take a home pregnancy test: Taking a home pregnancy test is not required immediately after missing a single dose of oral contraceptives, especially if it is the first week of the cycle. Pregnancy tests are typically recommended if there is a significant delay in the menstrual cycle or if multiple doses are missed.
Choice C reason:
Do not have vaginal intercourse until after your next period: This advice is overly cautious for a single missed dose. While it is important to use backup contraception if multiple doses are missed, abstaining from intercourse until the next period is not necessary for just one missed pill.
Choice D reason:
Take the missed dose now, then continue the medication as ordered: This is the correct course of action. According to guidelines, if a single hormonal pill is missed, it should be taken as soon as possible, and the next pill should be taken at the usual time. This may mean taking two pills in one day, but it ensures continuous contraceptive protection.
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