A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine for pain and has a respiratory rate of 8/min and a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Naloxone

Protamine sulfate

Acetylcysteine

Flumazenil

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Naloxone is a medication used as an opioid antagonist to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression and hypotension. In this scenario, the client's symptoms suggest opioid-induced respiratory depression, making naloxone the appropriate choice to reverse the effects of morphine.
B. Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin, not for treating opioid-induced respiratory depression and hypotension.
C. Acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) overdose, not for treating opioid-induced respiratory depression and hypotension.
D. Flumazenil is a medication used as a benzodiazepine antagonist to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose or sedation.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

D. Start an IV with a large-bore needle. Establishing intravenous access is crucial for fluid resuscitation and administering medications. It allows for timely administration of fluids and other necessary treatments to stabilize the client’s condition.
A. Increasing the room temperature is not a priority intervention for a client with a burn injury, especially immediately after securing the airway.
B. While wound care is essential in the management of burn injuries, it is not the first intervention to prioritize after securing the airway.
C. Burn injuries can be extremely painful, and providing analgesic medication is important but not a priority intervention

A. "These discomforts should decrease with time." B. "Women your age experience thickening of the vaginal tissue." C. "Your symptoms are likely due to decreasing estrogen levels." D. "You should avoid intercourse to prevent injury to your vagina."

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. It acknowledges the client's symptoms and provides a likely explanation related to hormonal changes associated with aging. It opens the door for further discussion and potential interventions to address the underlying cause.
A. This response dismisses the client's symptoms without addressing the underlying cause or providing potential solutions.
B. The opposite tends to occur with age – vaginal tissue can become thinner and drier due to decreasing estrogen levels, leading to symptoms like vaginal dryness and itching.
D. While avoiding intercourse may be recommended in certain situations, such as if there is discomfort or pain, it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Additionally, it may not be necessary if appropriate treatments are pursued to alleviate vaginal dryness and itching.

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A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine for pain and has a respiratory rate of 8/min and a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse working in the emergency department is caring for a client who has a burn injury. After securing the client's airway, which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who reports vaginal dryness and itching. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine for pain and has a respiratory rate of 8/min and a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?