A nurse is assessing a client who has the following vital signs: oral temperature 37.2° C (98.9° F), apical pulse rate 80/min, radial pulse rate 62/min, respiratory rate 16/min, and blood pressure 132/40 mm Hg. What is the client's pulse pressure?
(Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["92"]
- Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
- The client's pulse pressure is 132 - 40 = 92 mm Hg.
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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse should first administer the client's cefazolinto the client's IV access
Rationale:
Cefazolin is an antibiotic prescribed to treat the client's suspected infection indicated by the fever and hip surgical wound inflammation. Administering the antibiotic promptly is essential to initiate treatment and address the underlying cause of the fever. The prescription specifies administering cefazolin intravenously, so the nurse should prioritize administering it through the client's IV access. Administering acetaminophen or alprazolam may be appropriate based on the client's symptoms and vital signs, but addressing the infection with antibiotics takes precedence.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A.
A. Asymmetric lesions with variegated (multiple) colors are characteristic features of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Asymmetry means one half of the lesion does not match the other half in size, shape, or color.
B. Scaly and red lesions may indicate other skin conditions such as eczema or psoriasis but are not specific to skin cancer.
C. Brown lesions with a wart-like texture may indicate seborrheic keratosis, a benign skin growth, rather than skin cancer.
D. Firm and rubbery lesions may indicate benign skin tumors such as fibromas or lipomas, rather than skin cancer.

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