A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking sertraline for 2 weeks. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication that the medication is effective?
The client's blood pressure is within the expected reference range.
The client's legs are not swollen.
The client reports a recent weight loss
The client reports increase in mood.
The Correct Answer is D
A. The client's blood pressure is within the expected reference range - While blood pressure monitoring is important during treatment with certain medications, such as antihypertensives, it is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of sertraline, which is an antidepressant medication.
B. The client's legs are not swollen - Swelling of the legs may be a sign of fluid retention, which can occur with various conditions and medications. However, it is not a specific indicator of the effectiveness of sertraline.
C. The client reports a recent weight loss - Weight changes, including weight loss or gain, can occur as side effects of sertraline. However, weight changes alone do not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of the medication in treating depression.
D. The client reports an increase in mood - Improvement in mood, reduction in depressive symptoms, and overall sense of well-being are primary indicators of the effectiveness of sertraline and other antidepressant medications in treating depression. Therefore, the client reporting an increase in mood suggests that the medication may be effective in managing their symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Protamine: Protamine is used as an antidote for heparin, not for benzodiazepines.
B. Naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioids, such as morphine or heroin. It does not antagonize the effects of benzodiazepines.
C. Diphenhydramine: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine medication commonly used for allergy relief and as a sleep aid. It does not antagonize the effects of benzodiazepines.
D. Flumazenil: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist. It is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose or to rapidly reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines in cases such as anesthesia recovery. Therefore, it is the correct option for antagonizing benzodiazepines.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a potential adverse effect associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It manifests as involuntary, repetitive movements, primarily involving the face, mouth, and tongue. The nurse should suspect tardive dyskinesia when observing the following manifestations:
A. Involuntary pelvic rocking and hip thrusting movements: These movements are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia and indicate abnormal involuntary motor activity.
B. Urinary retention and constipation: These are not typical manifestations of tardive dyskinesia. Urinary retention and constipation can be side effects of anticholinergic medications but are not associated with tardive dyskinesia.
C. Fine hand tremors and pill rolling: These manifestations are more characteristic of parkinsonism, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is distinct from tardive dyskinesia.
D. Tongue thrusting and lip smacking: These are classic manifestations of tardive dyskinesia and indicate abnormal involuntary movements of the tongue and lips.
E. Facial grimacing and eye blinking: These are also common manifestations of tardive dyskinesia, involving involuntary movements of the face, including grimacing and blinking of the eyes.
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