A nurse is preparing to administer haloperidol 5 mg IM to a client. The amount available is haloperidol 20 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
(Round the answer to the nearest hundredth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["0.25"]
To calculate the volume of haloperidol solution needed, we can use the formula:
Volume (mL)=Dose (mg)/Concentration (mg/mL)
Given: Dose of haloperidol = 5 mg
Concentration of haloperidol solution = 20 mg/mL
Substituting the given values into the formula:
Volume (mL)=5 mg/20 mg/mL
Volume (mL)=5/20
Volume (mL)=0.25 mL
Rounded to the nearest hundredth, the nurse should administer 0.25 mL of haloperidol solution.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Speaking to the provider about adding an MAOI to the current medication regimen: MAOIs (Monoamine oxidase inhibitors) are typically considered as second- or third-line treatments due to their potential for serious side effects and interactions with other medications. It is not the first-line approach to managing depressive symptoms that have not improved with citalopram alone.
B. Telling the client that the provider will need to change citalopram to a different medication: It's premature to switch medications after only two weeks, as antidepressants often take several weeks to exert their full therapeutic effect. It's essential to allow adequate time for the current medication regimen to work before considering a change.
C. Explaining that antidepressants often take several weeks to be fully effective: This is the most appropriate action. It's important for the nurse to educate the client about the delayed onset of action of antidepressants and reassure them that improvement may take time. Adjustments to the dosage or switching to a different medication would typically be considered if there is no improvement after a sufficient trial period.
D. Recommending a sleep study be done on the client: While sleep disturbances are common in depression, recommending a sleep study would be premature at this stage. It's essential to address the underlying depressive symptoms first, as they may contribute to the sleep disturbance.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Protamine: Protamine is used as an antidote for heparin, not for benzodiazepines.
B. Naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioids, such as morphine or heroin. It does not antagonize the effects of benzodiazepines.
C. Diphenhydramine: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine medication commonly used for allergy relief and as a sleep aid. It does not antagonize the effects of benzodiazepines.
D. Flumazenil: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist. It is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose or to rapidly reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines in cases such as anesthesia recovery. Therefore, it is the correct option for antagonizing benzodiazepines.
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