A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the antagonist action of medications. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following antagonist medications is used for benzodiazepines?
Protamine
Naloxone
Diphenhydramine
Flumazenil
The Correct Answer is D
A. Protamine: Protamine is used as an antidote for heparin, not for benzodiazepines.
B. Naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioids, such as morphine or heroin. It does not antagonize the effects of benzodiazepines.
C. Diphenhydramine: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine medication commonly used for allergy relief and as a sleep aid. It does not antagonize the effects of benzodiazepines.
D. Flumazenil: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist. It is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose or to rapidly reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines in cases such as anesthesia recovery. Therefore, it is the correct option for antagonizing benzodiazepines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Disulfiram: Disulfiram is not used to manage alcohol withdrawal. It is a medication used in the treatment of alcohol dependence to deter alcohol consumption by producing unpleasant side effects if alcohol is ingested.
B. Methadone: Methadone is primarily used in the treatment of opioid dependence as a long-acting opioid agonist. It is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal.
C. Buprenorphine: Buprenorphine is also used in the treatment of opioid dependence. Like methadone, it is not used in the management of alcohol withdrawal.
D. Diazepam: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine medication commonly used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms. It helps alleviate symptoms such as anxiety, agitation, tremors, and seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment for alcohol withdrawal syndrome due to their ability to suppress central nervous system hyperexcitability and prevent progression to severe withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Hold the injection if seizure activity is present:
This is incorrect. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used to prevent seizures. If a client with a seizure disorder is experiencing seizure activity, it is essential to administer phenytoin promptly to help control and prevent further seizures.
B. Administer the medication at 100 mg/min:
This is incorrect. Phenytoin should be administered at a rate no faster than 50 mg/min to reduce the risk of adverse effects such as hypotension, arrhythmias, and cardiovascular collapse. Rapid infusion can cause adverse reactions such as hypotension, bradycardia, and cardiac arrhythmias.
C. Dilute the medication with dextrose 5% in water:
This is incorrect. Phenytoin should not be diluted with dextrose-containing solutions, as it can cause precipitation and result in clogging of the IV line. It is typically administered undiluted or diluted with normal saline solution.
D. Administer a saline solution after injection:
This is the correct action. After administering phenytoin IV, it is recommended to flush the IV line with normal saline solution to ensure that the medication is fully delivered and to prevent any remaining medication from precipitating in the IV line, which could lead to occlusion.
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