A nurse is assessing a client who had a colostomy 24 hrs ago. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?
The stoma appears dark purple in color.
The colostomy has had no output.
The client refuses to look at the colostomy.
The client reports a pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
The Correct Answer is A
A. The stoma appears dark purple in color. This is a priority finding, as it may indicate impaired circulation or necrosis of the stoma tissue. A healthy stoma should appear pink or red and moist. A dark purple or black color requires immediate evaluation.
B. The colostomy has had no output. While it is important to monitor output, it is not unusual for a new colostomy to have minimal or no output in the first 24–48 hours post-op as bowel function returns.
C. The client refuses to look at the colostomy. This is a psychosocial concern and may indicate body image issues or denial, but it is not the most urgent issue in the immediate postoperative period.
D. The client reports a pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10. Pain management is important, but a pain level of 6, while needing intervention, does not take priority over a potential vascular compromise of the stoma.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hydrocodone. This is an opioid analgesic appropriate for moderate to severe pain, such as a pain rating of 7/10. It is commonly used for acute pain management in cases like fractures and provides effective relief when non-opioids are insufficient.
B. Acetaminophen. While useful for mild to moderate pain, acetaminophen alone is likely inadequate for severe pain like that associated with a fracture rated 7/10.
C. Fentanyl. Fentanyl is a potent opioid used for severe or chronic pain, often in controlled settings such as surgery or cancer care. For an acute fracture, hydrocodone is typically preferred unless pain is extreme or uncontrolled.
D. Aspirin. Aspirin is primarily used for mild pain or anti-inflammatory purposes and is not appropriate as a first-line agent for severe pain. Additionally, it may increase the risk of bleeding, which is a consideration in trauma cases.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. 0.45% saline. This is a hypotonic solution, which may be used later in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) management, but it is not appropriate for initial fluid resuscitation as it does not rapidly expand intravascular volume.
B. NPH insulin. NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin and is not used for continuous infusion. In DKA, rapid insulin correction is needed, typically with a short-acting insulin like regular insulin.
C. 0.9% normal saline. This isotonic fluid is the first-line choice for fluid replacement in clients with DKA. It helps restore circulating volume and correct dehydration quickly, which is a critical initial intervention.
D. Glargine insulin. Glargine is a long-acting insulin and not suitable for IV infusion. DKA requires the use of short-acting insulin (e.g., regular insulin) administered via IV infusion to correct hyperglycemia and acidosis.
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