A nurse is admitting a client who is 1 week postpartum and reports excessive vaginal bleeding. The nurse speaks a different language than the client. The client's partner and 10- year-old child are accompanying her. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to gather the client's admission data?
Have the client's child translate.
Allow the client's partner to translate.
Request a female interpreter through the facility.
Ask a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client to translate.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Using a child as an interpreter can be inappropriate and may not ensure accurate communication, especially for sensitive topics such as medical history and symptoms.
B. While involving the client's partner may seem helpful, it may not ensure accurate translation, and the partner may not be proficient in medical terminology.
C. Requesting a female interpreter through the facility ensures accurate and confidential communication while respecting the client's cultural preferences and privacy.
D. While asking a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client may seem convenient, it may not ensure accurate translation, and the student may not have the necessary training in medical interpretation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E","G","H"]
Explanation
A. Nausea, while uncomfortable, is a common symptom during pregnancy and should be addressed, but it is not as urgent as the other symptoms in this context.
B. The deep tendon reflex (DTR) being 3+ bilaterally indicates hyperreflexia, which can be associated with conditions like preeclampsia, hence the need for follow-up.
C. The elevated blood pressure reading of 148/94 mm Hg is indicative of hypertension, which could be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication.
D. The fetal heart tracing, while important, does not show immediate concern with a rate of 140/min, which is within normal limits.
E. The weight gain of 0.68 kg (1.5 lb) within the last week is significant and could be indicative of fluid retention, which is concerning in the context of the client's other symptoms.
F. The respiratory rate of 20/min falls within the normal range, and there are no other indications of respiratory distress or abnormalities in the assessment findings provided. Therefore, respiratory assessment is not a priority for follow-up at this time.
G. The fundal height measurement of 29 cm is appropriate for 30 weeks of gestation, but given the other symptoms, it should be monitored for any rapid changes.
H. The presence of 1+ dependent edema noted bilaterally suggests fluid retention, which is a concerning finding and warrants further assessment to evaluate for signs of preeclampsia or other complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Coarctation of the aorta typically results in hypertension in the upper extremities due to increased pressure proximal to the coarctation.
B. Weak or absent femoral pulses are characteristic findings in coarctation of the aorta due to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities beyond the coarctation. This finding indicates peripheral vascular compromise in the lower limbs.
C. Frequent nosebleeds are not typically associated with coarctation of the aorta.
D. Coarctation of the aorta does not directly affect intracranial pressure.

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.