A nurse is admitting a client who has a history of heart failure.
Check the 5 findings that require immediate follow-up.
Vital signs
Respiratory assessment
Renal function
Cardiac enzymes
BNP
ECG results
Neurologic status
Correct Answer : A,B,C,E,F
A. Vital signs . The client has tachycardia (HR 138/min) and tachypnea (RR 28/min), which may indicate worsening heart failure or fluid overload. The low blood pressure (96/75 mmHg) is also concerning, especially with rapid ventricular response (RVR).
B. Respiratory assessment . The presence of a frequent cough with pink-tinged sputum suggests pulmonary congestion or pulmonary edema, a sign of worsening left-sided heart failure.
C. Renal function . The BUN of 28 mg/dL (elevated) and creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL (borderline high) suggest possible kidney impairment due to decreased cardiac output and poor perfusion.
D. Cardiac enzymes . The client denies chest pain or discomfort, so cardiac enzymes are not the immediate priority.
E. BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) . BNP is a key marker of heart failure severity and helps guide treatment decisions.
F. ECG results . The atrial fibrillation with RVR increases the risk of hemodynamic instability and potential thromboembolic events, requiring urgent intervention.
G. Neurologic status . The client is alert, oriented, and following commands, so no immediate neurologic concerns are present.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Having the client lay flat for 4 hours is appropriate. After coronary angiography, bed rest is required to prevent bleeding from the arterial puncture site, especially if a femoral approach was used.
B. Monitoring the site for bleeding and hematoma formation is correct. Bleeding is a potential complication, and frequent assessment of the catheter insertion site is necessary.
C. Administering metformin should be questioned. Metformin is contraindicated within 48 hours of receiving contrast dye because of the risk of lactic acidosis, especially in clients with impaired renal function.
D. Administering aspirin is appropriate. Aspirin is commonly prescribed to prevent clot formation after a coronary procedure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "Try taking a mild analgesic to relieve the headache." is correct. Nitroglycerin-induced headaches are a common side effect due to vasodilation. Mild analgesics such as acetaminophen can help alleviate the discomfort.
B. Taking only one dose to reduce the risk of a headache is inappropriate. The client should follow the prescribed dosing regimen to manage angina effectively. Skipping doses may increase the risk of angina attacks.
C. Requesting a different medication is not necessary. Nitroglycerin is an effective treatment for stable angina, and headaches typically diminish over time as the body adjusts to the medication.
D. Stating that nothing can be done to relieve the headaches is incorrect. Headaches from nitroglycerin can be managed with mild analgesics or by adjusting the timing of medication administration.
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