A nurse in the emergency room is caring for a client who presents with manifestations that indicate a myocardial infarction. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse take first?
Attach the leads for a 12-lead ECG.
Initiate oxygen therapy.
Insert the IV catheter.
Obtain a blood sample.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is: B. Initiate oxygen therapy.
Choice A reason:
Attaching the leads for a 12-lead ECG is crucial for diagnosing a myocardial infarction. However, it is not the first priority. Ensuring the patient receives adequate oxygen is more critical to prevent further myocardial damage. The ECG can be performed immediately after oxygen therapy is initiated to confirm the diagnosis and guide further treatment.
Choice B reason:
Initiating oxygen therapy is the first priority because it ensures that the heart muscle receives adequate oxygen, which is essential to prevent further damage during a myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy helps to maintain tissue oxygenation and can reduce the extent of myocardial injury. This immediate intervention is vital to stabilize the patient and improve outcomes.
Choice C reason:
Inserting the IV catheter is important for administering medications and fluids. However, it is not the first step. Oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure the heart and other vital organs receive sufficient oxygen. Once oxygen is administered, IV access can be established to facilitate further treatment.
Choice D reason:
Obtaining a blood sample is necessary for confirming the diagnosis and assessing cardiac markers. However, it is not the immediate priority. Ensuring the patient is oxygenated is more urgent to prevent further myocardial damage. Blood samples can be drawn after oxygen therapy is initiated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice a) is incorrect because vesicles on the skin are a sign of cutaneous anthrax, not inhalation anthrax. Cutaneous anthrax is caused by direct contact with anthrax spores through a break in the skin. It causes a painless, black, necrotic lesion on the affected area.
Choice b) is correct because respiratory failure is a sign of inhalation anthrax, which is the most deadly form of anthrax. Inhalation anthrax is caused by breathing in anthrax spores that enter the lungs and spread to the bloodstream. It causes severe breathing problems, chest pain, shock, and death.
Choice c) is incorrect because sloughing of skin is a sign of necrotizing fasciitis, not inhalation anthrax. Necrotizing fasciitis is a rare bacterial infection that destroys the soft tissue under the skin. It causes severe pain, swelling, redness, blisters, and gangrene.
Choice d) is incorrect because flu-like symptoms are not specific to inhalation anthrax. Flu-like symptoms can be caused by many other conditions, such as influenza, common cold, or COVID-19. Flu-like symptoms include fever, cough, sore throat, headache, and muscle aches.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a) is incorrect because morphine sulfate is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that can relieve pain, anxiety, and dyspnea. Morphine sulfate can also reduce the preload and afterload of the heart, which can improve the cardiac output and oxygenation.
Choice b) is incorrect because laboratory testing of serum potassium is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Serum potassium is an electrolyte that is important for the normal function of the cardiac cells and muscles. Serum potassium can be altered by various factors, such as renal function, acid-base balance, medications, or dietary intake. Serum potassium can affect the cardiac rhythm and contractility, which can influence the outcome of the client.
Choice c) is correct because 0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous is a prescription that requires clarification for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. 0.9% normal saline is an isotonic solution that can maintain the fluid balance and blood pressure in the body. However, 0.9% normal saline can also cause fluid overload and worsen the heart failure symptoms, such as edema, crackles, and dyspnea. The nurse should clarify with the provider if this prescription is appropriate for the client's condition and if there are any parameters or limits for the fluid administration.
Choice d) is incorrect because bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that can increase the urine output and reduce the fluid volume and pressure in the body. Bumetanide can also decrease the preload and afterload of the heart, which can improve the cardiac output and oxygenation.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today