A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic is assessing a client who has suspected primary open-angle glaucoma (PAOG). Which assessment finding would support a diagnosis of this type of glaucoma?

Loss of peripheral vision

Opacity of the lens

Decrease in color perception

Pain and purulent discharge

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of primary open-angle glaucoma. In POAG, increased intraocular pressure causes damage to the optic nerve, leading to a gradual loss of peripheral vision. This vision loss is often subtle and progresses slowly, making it difficult for individuals to notice until the condition is advanced.

B.   Opacity of the lens is characteristic of cataracts, not glaucoma. Cataracts involve the clouding of the eye's natural lens, which leads to blurred vision and difficulties with seeing clearly, particularly in bright light. While cataracts and glaucoma can occur simultaneously, opacity of the lens is not indicative of POAG.
C.   Decrease in color perception can be associated with various eye conditions, including age-related macular degeneration (AMD) and certain types of retinal diseases. While it can occur in glaucoma as the disease progresses, it is not the primary or most characteristic sign of POAG.
D.   Pain and purulent discharge are more associated with acute conditions such as conjunctivitis (pink eye) or an eye infection, rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. POAG typically presents without pain or discharge, as it is a chronic condition with a gradual onset of symptoms.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Black, tarry stool is indicative of blood that has been digested in the upper GI tract. The dark color is due to the action of digestive enzymes on blood.
B. Clay-colored stool is typically associated with biliary obstruction, not upper GI bleeding.
C. Watery stool can be caused by various conditions, including infections, inflammatory bowel diseases, and medications. It is not a specific indicator of upper GI bleeding.
D. Bright red blood in the stool is more likely to be associated with lower GI bleeding, such as from hemorrhoids or anal fissures.

A. The bleeding occurs from peptic ulcers in the stomach. B. This type of bleeding is treated by giving chewable aspirin. C. The bleeding occurs from tears in the lining of the duodenum. D. The bleeding occurs from a tear in the mucosal lining where the esophagus meets the stomach.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

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A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic is assessing a client who has suspected primary open-angle glaucoma (PAOG). Which assessment finding would support a diagnosis of this type of glaucoma?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is collecting a stool specimen from a client. What stool characteristic indicates to the nurse that the client may have an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The patient is admitted with upper GI bleeding following an episode of forceful vomiting due to excessive alcohol intake. The nurse suspects a Mallory-Weiss tear. Which of the following is true of a Mallory-Weiss tear?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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