A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic is assessing a client who has suspected primary open-angle glaucoma (PAOG). Which assessment finding would support a diagnosis of this type of glaucoma?

Loss of peripheral vision

Opacity of the lens

Decrease in color perception

Pain and purulent discharge

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of primary open-angle glaucoma. In POAG, increased intraocular pressure causes damage to the optic nerve, leading to a gradual loss of peripheral vision. This vision loss is often subtle and progresses slowly, making it difficult for individuals to notice until the condition is advanced.

B.   Opacity of the lens is characteristic of cataracts, not glaucoma. Cataracts involve the clouding of the eye's natural lens, which leads to blurred vision and difficulties with seeing clearly, particularly in bright light. While cataracts and glaucoma can occur simultaneously, opacity of the lens is not indicative of POAG.
C.   Decrease in color perception can be associated with various eye conditions, including age-related macular degeneration (AMD) and certain types of retinal diseases. While it can occur in glaucoma as the disease progresses, it is not the primary or most characteristic sign of POAG.
D.   Pain and purulent discharge are more associated with acute conditions such as conjunctivitis (pink eye) or an eye infection, rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. POAG typically presents without pain or discharge, as it is a chronic condition with a gradual onset of symptoms.

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Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]

Explanation

A. Cardiac catheterization is often used in the management of an acute myocardial infarction to assess the extent of coronary artery disease and to determine the need for interventions such as angioplasty and stenting. This procedure is crucial for reperfusion therapy, especially in the context of ST-elevation MI (STEMI). Given the client’s symptoms and diagnostic findings, preparing for cardiac catheterization is an appropriate order.
B. While an echocardiogram can be useful for evaluating cardiac function and determining the extent of myocardial damage, it is not typically the immediate priority in the acute management of an MI. The focus is usually on rapid reperfusion therapy and stabilizing the patient. Therefore, this option is less urgent compared to others like administering oxygen and preparing for cardiac catheterization.
C. Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant used for long-term anticoagulation management and is not typically used in the acute setting of an MI. In acute MI management, other anticoagulants such as heparin or low molecular weight heparin are preferred for immediate anticoagulation. Administering warfarin in the acute setting is not appropriate.
D. Furosemide is a diuretic used to manage fluid overload and reduce symptoms of heart failure. It is not indicated as an immediate intervention in acute MI unless there is evidence of significant fluid overload or heart failure symptoms. The client’s current presentation does not suggest an immediate need for furosemide.
E. Supplemental oxygen is important in the management of acute myocardial infarction to ensure
adequate oxygen delivery to the myocardium and to alleviate hypoxia, especially since the client’s oxygen saturation is low at 92%. Providing supplemental oxygen is a standard intervention in the acute management of MI.
F. Sublingual nitroglycerin is commonly used to relieve chest pain in myocardial infarction by causing vasodilation. However, it should be used with caution in the presence of hypotension or other contraindications. Given the client’s symptoms and high heart rate, nitroglycerin could be appropriate,
but should be carefully monitored for effects on blood pressure.
G. A clear liquid diet is not an immediate priority in the management of acute myocardial infarction. Diet modification may be considered later in the course of treatment, but it is not a critical intervention in the acute phase.

A. Low adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and low cortisol B. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and elevated cortisol C. Low adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and elevated cortisol D. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and low cortisol

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. This would indicate adrenal insufficiency, not Cushing syndrome.
B. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and elevated cortisol would indicate Cushing syndrome caused by pituitary adenoma, not adrenal gland hyperplasia.
C. Low adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and elevated cortisol is consistent with Cushing syndrome caused by adrenal gland hyperplasia. In this condition, the adrenal glands produce excess cortisol independently of ACTH stimulation.
D. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and low cortisol would indicate adrenal insufficiency, not Cushing syndrome.

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A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic is assessing a client who has suspected primary open-angle glaucoma (PAOG). Which assessment finding would support a diagnosis of this type of glaucoma?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in an emergency department (ED) is admitting a client. Exhibits Select the 3 orders that the nurse should expect for this client.

Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. After performing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), the underlying cause of the condition is found to be hyperplasia of the adrenal glands. Which of the following lab results would the nurse anticipate with this condition?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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