A nurse in an emergency department is performing triage on a group of clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
A client who has heart failure and peripheral edema.
A client who has cirrhosis of the liver and bruising on their arms.
A client who reports urinary burning and a temperature of 39.2° C (102.5° F).
A client who has a new onset of atrial fibrillation and a heart rate of 152/min.
The Correct Answer is D
Atrial fibrillation with a rapid heart rate can lead to decreased cardiac output and compromised blood flow, which can have serious consequences, including stroke and heart failure. Therefore, this client requires immediate attention to assess and manage the cardiac rhythm.
While the other clients also have significant health concerns, they are not as acutely life-threatening as a new onset of atrial fibrillation with a high heart rate. Prioritizing care based on the urgency and severity of the condition is crucial in the emergency department setting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not inform the client of the need to pre-pay for the consent of authorization. Precertification for surgery is related to obtaining approval from the client's insurance provider and not about pre-payment.
Choice B rationale:
Contacting the client's insurance carrier to obtain authorization is the correct action to take when obtaining precertification for surgery. Many insurance companies require pre-authorization for surgical procedures to ensure coverage and to confirm that the procedure is medically necessary. This step is essential to prevent financial burdens on the client and ensure they have coverage for the surgery.
Choice C rationale:
Notifying the provider to obtain approval for the surgery is not the nurse's responsibility in the context of precertification. The primary responsibility lies with obtaining approval from the client's insurance carrier.
Choice D rationale:
Witnessing the client sign the surgical consent form is an essential step in the surgical preparation process but is not the same as obtaining precertification. Precertification involves confirming insurance coverage and approval for the surgery, which is the responsibility of the insurance carrier, not the client's consent.
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice A, Choice B
Choice A rationale: Clostridium difficile is a spore-forming, gram-positive anaerobic bacillus that causes antibiotic-associated colitis. Transmission occurs via the fecal-oral route, primarily through contact with contaminated surfaces or hands. Protective gowns are essential during care to prevent spore transfer to clothing and subsequent environmental contamination. Spores resist alcohol-based sanitizers and persist on surfaces for months. Contact precautions, including gown use, reduce nosocomial spread. Normal white blood cell count is 4,000–11,000/mm³; elevated levels may indicate infection severity.
Choice B rationale: Isolation in a private room is critical for clients with confirmed Clostridium difficile infection due to the organism’s ability to form resilient spores that contaminate surfaces and equipment. Private rooms limit environmental exposure and reduce cross-contamination risk. C. difficile spores are resistant to routine cleaning agents and require bleach-based disinfectants. Diarrheal stool volume increases transmission risk. Normal stool frequency is 1–3 formed stools/day; 4–5 liquid stools/day indicates active infectious diarrhea requiring isolation.
Choice C rationale: N-95 respirators are designed for airborne pathogens such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, measles virus, or varicella-zoster virus. Clostridium difficile is not airborne; it transmits via contact with contaminated surfaces or hands. Spores are shed in feces and do not aerosolize under normal conditions. Therefore, N-95 respirators offer no added protection against CDI. Airborne precautions are unnecessary unless aerosol-generating procedures are performed on patients with concurrent airborne infections. Respiratory rate normal range is 12–20 breaths/min.
Choice D rationale: Negative pressure rooms are used to contain airborne pathogens by maintaining lower air pressure inside the room, preventing contaminated air from escaping. Clostridium difficile does not spread via airborne particles but through contact with contaminated surfaces and feces. Thus, negative pressure rooms are not scientifically justified for CDI. Instead, contact isolation and environmental decontamination are prioritized. Room air exchanges are irrelevant to CDI control. Normal room air pressure is neutral unless airborne precautions are indicated.
Choice E rationale: Masking the client is a droplet precaution used for pathogens like influenza virus, Neisseria meningitidis, or SARS-CoV-2. Clostridium difficile does not transmit via respiratory droplets, so placing a mask on the client during transport does not reduce transmission risk. Instead, hand hygiene and contact precautions are essential. CDI spores are not expelled via coughing or sneezing. Droplet precautions are reserved for pathogens with particle size >5 µm. Normal oxygen saturation is ≥95% on room air.
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