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A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who is receiving treatment for excessive ingestion of antacids. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following acid- base imbalances?

A.

Metabolic acidosis

B.

Respiratory alkalosis

C.

Metabolic alkalosis

D.

Respiratory acidosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

C. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an increase in serum bicarbonate levels, resulting in an imbalance in the body's acid-base equilibrium towards alkalinity. Excessive ingestion of antacids, particularly those containing bicarbonate or calcium carbonate, can lead to an excessive accumulation of bicarbonate ions in the body, causing metabolic alkalosis.
A. Excessive ingestion of antacids would not typically cause metabolic acidosis because antacids containing bicarbonate or calcium carbonate actually increase bicarbonate levels, leading to alkalosis rather than acidosis.
B. Respiratory alkalosis occurs due to hyperventilation, leading to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels and subsequent alkalosis. Excessive ingestion of antacids is not typically associated with respiratory alkalosis.
 
D. Respiratory acidosis occurs due to hypoventilation, leading to an increase in carbon dioxide levels and subsequent acidosis. Excessive ingestion of antacids is not typically associated with respiratory acidosis.
 


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant that can help decrease anxiety and relieve dyspnea in clients with acute heart failure. Therefore, a decrease in anxiety would indicate that the medication has been effective in achieving its intended outcome.
A. Emesis, or vomiting, is not an expected outcome of morphine administration in the context of acute heart failure.
B. While morphine can help alleviate dyspnea, an increased respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress rather than effective symptom relief.
D. Morphine does not directly affect urinary output, and a decrease in urinary output may indicate other issues such as renal dysfunction or fluid overload.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

D. After treatment for primary syphilis, it is essential for the client to have follow-up blood tests to monitor their response to treatment and ensure that the infection has been adequately treated. The follow-up blood tests are typically performed at 3, 6, and 12 months after treatment to check for resolution of the infection.
A. Syphilis is caused by a bacterial infection, not a virus. Therefore, antiviral medications are not effective for treating syphilis.
B. Cryotherapy, which involves freezing off warts or abnormal tissue, is not a treatment for syphilis.
C. Monitoring for 15 minutes after receiving each medication dose is a standard precaution for certain medications, such as vaccines or allergy injections, to monitor for any immediate adverse reactions. However, it is not necessary for syphilis.

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