A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a 0.9% sodium chloride via IV infusion. The client has become dyspneic with a blood pressure of 140/100 mm Hg. a fluid intake of 960 mL, and an output of 300 mL in the past 12 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Slow infusion rate and contact the provider.
Lower the head of the bed to semi-Fowler's.
Administer prescribed corticosteroids.
Change infusion to lactated Ringer's and maintain rate.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The client's dyspnea and elevated blood pressure may indicate fluid volume overload. Slowing the infusion rate and notifying the provider are appropriate actions.
B. Lowering the head of the bed may help with dyspnea but does not address the underlying cause of fluid overload.
C. Administering corticosteroids is not indicated based on the client's symptoms and situation.
D. Changing the infusion to lactated Ringer's may be appropriate, but slowing the infusion rate and assessing the client further are the priority actions.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"C"},"C":{"answers":"C"},"D":{"answers":"B"},"E":{"answers":"C"},"F":{"answers":"A"}}
Explanation
A) An increase in oxygen saturation to 96% at a reduced oxygen flow rate indicates potential improvement in respiratory function, which can be a positive sign of recovery from a UTI.
B) Disorientation to person, place, and time suggests a potential worsening of the condition, as UTIs can cause confusion, especially in older adults and those with dementia.
C) A drop in blood pressure to 100/50 mm Hg could indicate potential worsening, as it may suggest dehydration or sepsis, both of which can complicate a UTI.
D) A decrease in hematocrit (Hct) to 45% is within the normal range and could indicate an improvement if previously elevated due to dehydration.
E) Pink-tinged urine may indicate the presence of blood, a sign of potential worsening, as it could suggest a more severe infection or other complications.
F) A butterfly rash is not typically associated with a UTI and may be unrelated to the current diagnosis; in this scenario it is related to the patient’s history of systemic lupus erythematosus.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Syphilis is a bacterial infection, so antiviral medication is not appropriate.
Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as penicillin.
B. Cryotherapy is not a standard treatment for primary syphilis. Antibiotics are the primary treatment.
C. This is in line with the treatment guidelines for syphilis, which involve antibiotic therapy and follow-up testing to ensure the infection is fully resolved. The tests are done at 3, 6, and 12 months after completion of treatment.
D. Monitoring after medication doses may be necessary for certain medications but is not specifically indicated for primary syphilis.
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