A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a 0.9% sodium chloride via IV infusion. The client has become dyspneic with a blood pressure of 140/100 mm Hg. a fluid intake of 960 mL, and an output of 300 mL in the past 12 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Slow infusion rate and contact the provider.
Lower the head of the bed to semi-Fowler's.
Administer prescribed corticosteroids.
Change infusion to lactated Ringer's and maintain rate.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The client's dyspnea and elevated blood pressure may indicate fluid volume overload. Slowing the infusion rate and notifying the provider are appropriate actions.
B. Lowering the head of the bed may help with dyspnea but does not address the underlying cause of fluid overload.
C. Administering corticosteroids is not indicated based on the client's symptoms and situation.
D. Changing the infusion to lactated Ringer's may be appropriate, but slowing the infusion rate and assessing the client further are the priority actions.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While pain assessment is important, ensuring airway patency takes priority over pain assessment in a client who has received sedation.
B. Monitoring temperature is important but is not the priority in this scenario.
C. Warmth of extremities is not as critical as assessing the airway.
D. Gag reflex assessment is essential to evaluate the client's ability to protect their airway and prevent aspiration, especially after receiving sedation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Nephrotic syndrome is not typically associated with decreased coagulation.
B) Proteinuria, or the presence of excessive protein in the urine, is a hallmark finding of nephrotic syndrome.
C) Nephrotic syndrome is actually associated with increased serum lipid levels.
D) Hyperalbuminemia is not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome; rather, hypoalbuminemia is more common due to loss of albumin in the urine.
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