A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports occasional atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance. On auscultation, the nurse notes a systolic click. The nurse should recognize this finding as a manifestation of which of the following conditions?

Aortic regurgitation,

Mitral stenosis

Aortic stenosis

Mitral valve prolapse

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Aortic regurgitation: Aortic regurgitation typically presents with a diastolic murmur, not a systolic click.

B. Mitral stenosis: Mitral stenosis presents with a diastolic murmur, often associated with an opening snap, rather than a systolic click.

C. Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis typically presents with a systolic ejection murmur, but not a systolic click.

D. Mitral valve prolapse: This is the correct answer. Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is characterized by the displacement of the mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole, often producing a systolic click. Symptoms associated with MVP can include atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "The medication can take up to 15 minutes to take effect." - This statement is not accurate, sublingual nitroglycerin works rapidly and often provides relief within a few minutes.

B. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered by placing the tablet under the tongue, and it should be allowed to dissolve or be absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the mucous membranes. It is not swallowed or chewed. The small sip of water can help facilitate the dissolving process.

C. "Avoid taking the medication prior to exercising." - This statement is not accurate. Nitroglycerin can be taken before anticipated exertion or activities that may trigger angina to prevent anginal episodes during physical activity.

D. "Stop taking the medication and notify your provider if you develop a headache." - While headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin, they are generally transient and not a reason to stop taking the medication. Persistent or severe headaches should be reported to the healthcare provider.

A. RBC B. Platelets C. Granulocytes D. WBC

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. RBC (Red Blood Cells): ITP primarily affects platelet levels, not red blood cells. Therefore, red blood cell counts are not typically decreased in ITP.

B. Platelets: This is the correct answer. ITP is characterized by a low platelet count due to immune-mediated destruction of platelets. A decreased platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding.

C. Granulocytes: While ITP primarily affects platelets, it does not have a direct impact on granulocyte counts. Granulocytes are a type of white blood cell.

D. WBC (White Blood Cells): ITP primarily affects platelets, not white blood cells. Therefore, white blood cell counts are not typically decreased in ITP.

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A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports occasional atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance. On auscultation, the nurse notes a systolic click. The nurse should recognize this finding as a manifestation of which of the following conditions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) to treat angina pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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