A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports occasional atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance. On auscultation, the nurse notes a systolic click. The nurse should recognize this finding as a manifestation of which of the following conditions?
Aortic regurgitation,
Mitral stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Mitral valve prolapse
The Correct Answer is D
A. Aortic regurgitation: Aortic regurgitation typically presents with a diastolic murmur, not a systolic click.
B. Mitral stenosis: Mitral stenosis presents with a diastolic murmur, often associated with an opening snap, rather than a systolic click.
C. Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis typically presents with a systolic ejection murmur, but not a systolic click.
D. Mitral valve prolapse: This is the correct answer. Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is characterized by the displacement of the mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole, often producing a systolic click. Symptoms associated with MVP can include atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to the absorption of vitamin B12. It primarily involves a decrease in the production of blood cells by the bone marrow.
B. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs: This is the correct information. Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of blood cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.
C. Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not associated with an increased rate of RBC destruction. Instead, it is characterized by a reduction in the number of blood cells produced by the bone marrow.
D. Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to a decreased intake of iron. It is primarily a disorder of bone marrow function leading to insufficient production of blood cells.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Myringotomy: Myringotomy is a procedure involving the insertion of tubes into the eardrum to treat conditions such as chronic ear infections. This procedure is not associated with a significant risk of deep-vein thrombosis.
B. Hip arthroplasty: Hip arthroplasty, or hip replacement surgery, is associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis due to factors such as immobility, surgical trauma, and alterations in blood flow. Prophylactic measures, such as anticoagulant medications and early ambulation, are often employed to reduce this risk.
C. Cataract extraction: Cataract extraction is a procedure to remove a cloudy lens from the eye. This surgery is not typically associated with a high risk of deep-vein thrombosis.
D. Laparoscopic appendectomy: Laparoscopic appendectomy, a minimally invasive procedure to remove the appendix, is generally associated with a lower risk of deep-vein thrombosis compared to major orthopedic surgeries like hip arthroplasty.
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