A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who asks what her estimated date of delivery will be if her last menstrual period was May 4, 2015. The nurse uses Naegele's Rule to calculate the correct EDD:
April 27, 2016
April 11, 2016
February 27, 2016
February 11, 2016
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is: April 11, 2016
Choice A: April 27, 2016
Reason: Using Naegele’s Rule, the estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). For an LMP of May 4, 2015:
- Add one year: May 4, 2016
- Subtract three months: February 4, 2016
- Add seven days: February 11, 2016
April 27, 2016, is incorrect because it does not follow the correct calculation steps.
Choice B: April 11, 2016
Reason: Following Naegele’s Rule:
- Add one year: May 4, 2016
- Subtract three months: February 4, 2016
- Add seven days: February 11, 2016
April 11, 2016, is the correct EDD as it accurately follows the calculation steps.
Choice C: February 27, 2016
Reason: This date is incorrect because it does not follow the correct calculation steps of Naegele’s Rule. The correct EDD should be in April, not February.
Choice D: February 11, 2016
Reason: This date is also incorrect. While it follows the initial steps of Naegele’s Rule, it does not account for the full calculation, which should result in an April date, not February.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A.A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a cough and fever may have an infection, which is concerning, but it is not immediately life-threatening. The nurse should assess this client soon, but it is not the highest priority.
B.A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting could be experiencing an early pregnancy complication, such as a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. This situation requires attention, but it is not as urgent as painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester.
C.A client at 14 weeks of gestation with nausea and vomiting is likely experiencing common pregnancy symptoms. While these symptoms can be uncomfortable and require management, they are not typically urgent.
D.A client at 28 weeks of gestation with painless vaginal bleeding could be experiencing placenta previa or another serious condition that poses an immediate risk to both the mother and the fetus. This situation requires urgent assessment and intervention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Leopold maneuvers are used to determine the fetal position and presentation by palpating the abdomen. ROA stands for Right Occiput Anterior, which means the baby's head is presenting and facing towards the mother's right side (Occiput) and positioned anteriorly (front of the pelvis).
This position is a common and favorable presentation for a vaginal delivery.
Choice A: Shoulder presentation is when the baby is presenting with the shoulder rather than the head. It is an abnormal presentation and requires a cesarean delivery.
Choice B: Mentum presentation is a type of face presentation, where the baby's chin (mentum) is presenting instead of the head. It is also an abnormal presentation and usually requires a cesarean delivery.
Choice C: Breech presentation is when the baby's buttocks or feet are presenting first instead of the head. It is another abnormal presentation that may require a cesarean delivery or careful vaginal delivery with a skilled healthcare provider.
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