A nurse is teaching about fetal development to a group of clients in the antenatal clinic.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
“The baby’s heart beat is audible by a Doppler stethoscope at 12 weeks of pregnancy.”
“The baby’s sex can be determined by ultrasound at 8 weeks of pregnancy.”
“The baby’s lungs are fully mature by 24 weeks of pregnancy.”
“The baby’s eyes open and close by 16 weeks of pregnancy.”
The Correct Answer is A
The baby’s heart beat is audible by a Doppler stethoscope at 12 weeks of pregnancy.
This is a device that uses sound waves to create an image of the baby’s heart and measure its rate and rhythm.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice B is wrong because the baby’s sex can not be determined by ultrasound at 8 weeks of pregnancy.
The external genitalia are not fully developed until around 14 to 16 weeks of pregnancy.
Even then, the accuracy of ultrasound depends on factors such as the position of the baby, the quality of the equipment, and the skill of the sonographer.
Choice C is wrong because the baby’s lungs are not fully mature by 24 weeks of pregnancy.
The lungs are one of the last organs to develop in the fetus and they continue to grow and mature until near term.
The production of surfactant, a substance that helps the lungs expand and prevent collapse, begins around 24 weeks but is not sufficient until around 34 to 36 weeks.
Choice D is wrong because the baby’s eyes do not open and close by 16 weeks of pregnancy.
The eyelids are fused together until around 26 to 28 weeks of pregnancy, when they start to open and close periodically.
The baby can also respond to light and dark stimuli around this time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because migraine headaches with aura are a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they increase the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular complications.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice B: A 32-year-old client who has endometriosis.
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can actually help reduce the symptoms of endometriosis by suppressing ovulation and reducing menstrual bleeding.
Choice C: A 28-year-old client who has polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can help regulate the menstrual cycle and lower the levels of androgens (male hormones) that cause acne, hirsutism (excess hair growth), and other problems in women with PCOS.
Choice D: A 22-year-old client who has irregular menstrual cycles.
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can help normalize the menstrual cycle and prevent unintended pregnancy.
Normal ranges for oral contraceptive doses are:
Estrogen: 10 to 35 mcg of ethinyl estradiol or estradiol valerate
Progestin: varies depending on the type and brand of oral contraceptive
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
“I will have sensors placed on my abdomen to monitor the FHR and uterine contractions.” This statement indicates the client understands the test procedure of a CST, which is a test that triggers contractions and registers how the baby’s heart reacts.
The test is done by placing two sensor belts around the abdomen, one to measure the baby’s heartbeat and the other to measure contractions.
The client may receive oxytocin through an IV to induce contractions.
Choice B is wrong because the client does not need to fast for 24 hours before the test.
There is no evidence that fasting is required for a CST.
Choice C is wrong because the client will not be sedated during the test.
Sedation is not necessary for a CST and may interfere with the results.
Choice D is wrong because the client does not need to drink plenty of fluids before the test.
There is no evidence that drinking fluids is required for a CST.
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