A nurse is reviewing contraception options for four clients.
The nurse should identify that which of the following clients has a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives?
A 25-year-old client who has migraine headaches with aura.
A 32-year-old client who has endometriosis.
A 28-year-old client who has polycystic ovary syndrome
A 22-year-old client who has irregular menstrual cycles.
The Correct Answer is A
This is because migraine headaches with aura are a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they increase the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular complications.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice B: A 32-year-old client who has endometriosis.
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can actually help reduce the symptoms of endometriosis by suppressing ovulation and reducing menstrual bleeding.
Choice C: A 28-year-old client who has polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can help regulate the menstrual cycle and lower the levels of androgens (male hormones) that cause acne, hirsutism (excess hair growth), and other problems in women with PCOS.
Choice D: A 22-year-old client who has irregular menstrual cycles.
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can help normalize the menstrual cycle and prevent unintended pregnancy.
Normal ranges for oral contraceptive doses are:
Estrogen: 10 to 35 mcg of ethinyl estradiol or estradiol valerate
Progestin: varies depending on the type and brand of oral contraceptive
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A low level of AFP (<0.5 MoM) in a pregnant woman can indicate that the fetus has a chromosomal abnormality, such as Down syndrome or Edwards syndrome.
This is because these conditions affect the development of the fetal liver, which produces AFP.
Choice A is wrong because neural tube defects, such as spina bifida, are associated with high levels of AFP (>2.5 MoM) in the maternal blood.
This is because AFP can leak from the open spinal canal of the fetus into the amniotic fluid and then into the maternal blood.
Choice C is wrong because maternal weight-related factors do not affect the level of AFP in the maternal blood.
However, they can affect the interpretation of the AFP test results, as the test needs to be adjusted for maternal weight, age, ethnicity, and gestational age.
Choice D is wrong because fetal demise (death) can also cause high levels of AFP in the maternal blood, as the AFP from the dead fetus can leak into the amniotic fluid and then into the maternal blood.
Normal ranges of AFP in pregnant women vary depending on the gestational age and the method of measurement.
Generally, normal levels of AFP are below 10 ng/ml in nonpregnant adults and below 2.5 MoM in pregnant women.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because cramping and vaginal bleeding after an amniocentesis may indicate a possible miscarriage or placental abruption, which can compromise fetal oxygenation and perfusion.
Monitoring fetal heart rate can help detect signs of fetal distress and guide further interventions.
Choice A is wrong because administering Rho(D) immune globulin is indicated for Rh-negative mothers who undergo amniocentesis to prevent isoimmunization, but it is not a priority action in this scenario.
Choice C is wrong because assessing maternal vital signs is important to monitor for signs of infection, hemorrhage, or shock, but it is not as urgent as monitoring fetal well-being.
Choice D is wrong because obtaining an order for an ultrasound exam can help confirm the diagnosis and evaluate the placenta and amniotic fluid, but it is not the first action to take in this situation.
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