A nurse is reviewing contraception options for four clients.
The nurse should identify that which of the following clients has a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives?
A 25-year-old client who has migraine headaches with aura.
A 32-year-old client who has endometriosis.
A 28-year-old client who has polycystic ovary syndrome
A 22-year-old client who has irregular menstrual cycles.
The Correct Answer is A
This is because migraine headaches with aura are a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they increase the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular complications.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice B: A 32-year-old client who has endometriosis.
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can actually help reduce the symptoms of endometriosis by suppressing ovulation and reducing menstrual bleeding.
Choice C: A 28-year-old client who has polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can help regulate the menstrual cycle and lower the levels of androgens (male hormones) that cause acne, hirsutism (excess hair growth), and other problems in women with PCOS.
Choice D: A 22-year-old client who has irregular menstrual cycles.
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can help normalize the menstrual cycle and prevent unintended pregnancy.
Normal ranges for oral contraceptive doses are:
Estrogen: 10 to 35 mcg of ethinyl estradiol or estradiol valerate
Progestin: varies depending on the type and brand of oral contraceptive
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
An amniotic fluid index (AFI) of 4 cm indicates oligohydramnios, which is a low amount of amniotic fluid.
Oligohydramnios can be caused by various factors, such as uteroplacental insufficiency, rupture of membranes, postterm pregnancy, fetal anomalies, or certain medications.
Oligohydramnios can lead to complications such as fetal death, intrauterine growth restriction, limb contractures, or delayed lung maturation.
Choice A is wrong because an AFI of 8 cm is within the normal range for amniotic fluid volume.
Choice C is wrong because a single vertical pocket of amniotic fluid measuring 3 cm is also within the normal range for amniotic fluid volume.
Choice D is wrong because a single vertical pocket of amniotic fluid measuring 5 cm is also within the normal range for amniotic fluid volume.
Normal ranges for AFI and single vertical pocket are > 5 to < 24 cm and ≥ 2 to < 8 cm, respectively.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
"NST is performed after 28 weeks of gestation or earlier if there are risk factors."12 This statement indicates that the client understands when and why an NST is done.
Choice B is wrong because it describes a reactive NST, not a nonreactive one.
A reactive NST means that the fetal heart rate increases by at least 15 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds twice or more in a 20-minute period.2
Choice C is wrong because it confuses NST with contraction stress test (CST), which requires monitoring uterine contractions.
NST does not involve contractions.2
Choice D is wrong because it describes possible causes of a nonreactive NST, not a reactive one.
A nonreactive NST may indicate fetal hypoxia, distress, sleep, medication effect, or neurological abnormality.2
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