A nurse collects the health history of a 65-year-old client. Which of the following risk factors in the client's history puts the client at the highest risk for embolic stroke?
Atrial fibrillation.
Hypertension.
Diabetes.
Alcohol abuse.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because atrial fibrillation is the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular and rapid heart rate that causes poor blood flow and blood pooling in the heart chambers. This can lead to the formation of blood clots that can travel to the brain and block an artery, causing an embolic stroke.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because hypertension is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Hypertension is high blood pressure that puts stress on the blood vessels and increases the risk of bleeding or rupture. This can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because diabetes is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Diabetes is a condition that causes high blood sugar levels and damages the blood vessels and nerves. This can lead to poor circulation and increased risk of infection and ulcers, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because alcohol abuse is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Alcohol abuse is excessive consumption of alcohol that affects liver function and blood clotting factors. This can lead to liver disease and bleeding disorders, but not an embolic stroke.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Requesting the charge nurse put the client on the surgery schedule is not the best first action, as it does not address the urgency of the situation. The client may have a perforated appendix, which is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice B Reason: Documenting the WBC count from the morning labs is not the best first action, as it does not address the client's current condition. The WBC count may be elevated due to inflammation or infection, but it does not indicate the severity of the problem.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct choice. Notifying the healthcare provider is the best first action, as it alerts them to the possibility of a perforated appendix and allows them to order appropriate tests and treatments.
Choice D Reason: Providing an antiemetic is not the best first action, as it does not address the underlying cause of the vomiting. The client may have peritonitis, which is inflammation of the abdominal cavity due to leakage of intestinal contents. An antiemetic may mask this symptom and delay diagnosis and treatment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Sweating and pallor are early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, which is a condition where food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine, causing rapid fluid shifts and hormonal changes. Sweating and pallor are caused by hypoglycemia, which occurs when the high concentration of food in the small intestine stimulates insulin secretion.
Choice B Reason: Abdominal cramping and pain are late signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, which occur about one to three hours after eating. Abdominal cramping and pain are caused by intestinal distension, spasms, and gas formation.
Choice C Reason: Double vision and chest pain are not signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, but may indicate other serious conditions, such as stroke or heart attack. Double vision and chest pain should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice D Reason: Bradycardia and indigestion are not signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, but may be related to other gastrointestinal disorders, such as gastritis or peptic ulcer disease. Bradycardia and indigestion should be evaluated by the provider for further diagnosis and treatment.
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