A nurse collects the health history of a 65-year-old client. Which of the following risk factors in the client's history puts the client at the highest risk for embolic stroke?
Atrial fibrillation.
Hypertension.
Diabetes.
Alcohol abuse.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because atrial fibrillation is the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular and rapid heart rate that causes poor blood flow and blood pooling in the heart chambers. This can lead to the formation of blood clots that can travel to the brain and block an artery, causing an embolic stroke.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because hypertension is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Hypertension is high blood pressure that puts stress on the blood vessels and increases the risk of bleeding or rupture. This can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because diabetes is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Diabetes is a condition that causes high blood sugar levels and damages the blood vessels and nerves. This can lead to poor circulation and increased risk of infection and ulcers, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because alcohol abuse is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Alcohol abuse is excessive consumption of alcohol that affects liver function and blood clotting factors. This can lead to liver disease and bleeding disorders, but not an embolic stroke.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because education about mastoidectomy is not relevant for a client with an upper respiratory infection. Mastoidectomy is a surgical procedure that removes part or all of the mastoid bone behind the ear, which can become infected or inflamed due to chronic or recurrent middle ear infections. The nurse should assess the client's ear for signs of mastoiditis, such as swelling, tenderness, or redness behind the ear, but mastoidectomy is not a common or first-line treatment for upper respiratory infection.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because a referral for a hearing test is not necessary for a client with an upper respiratory infection. Hearing test is a diagnostic tool that measures how well a person can hear different sounds at different frequencies and intensities. The nurse should ask the client about any changes in hearing or tinnitus, which are possible complications of upper respiratory infection, but a hearing test is not a routine or urgent intervention for this condition.
Choice C reason: This is correct because education on the administration of oral antibiotics can help treat an upper respiratory infection. Antibiotics are drugs that kill or inhibit bacteria that cause infections. Upper respiratory infections can be caused by various pathogens, such as viruses, bacteria, or fungi, but bacterial infections are more likely to cause fever, otalgia, or purulent nasal drainage. The nurse should instruct the client on how to take antibiotics as prescribed, such as dosage, frequency, duration, side effects, and interactions.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because a prescription for an antifungal cream is not appropriate for a client
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because laceration is not an acute traumatic brain injury, but a type of wound that involves tearing or cutting of the skin or other tissues. Laceration can occur as a result of a motor vehicle accident, but it does not cause changes in the GCS or pupil size. The nurse should assess the client's skin for any signs of laceration, such as bleeding, swelling, or infection.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because acute subdural hematoma is not likely to cause a dilated pupil on the left side. Acute subdural hematoma is a type of traumatic brain injury that involves bleeding between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, which are two layers of the meninges that cover the brain. An acute subdural hematoma can cause a rapid decrease in the GCS, but it usually causes a dilated pupil on the same side as the injury, not on the opposite side.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because intracerebral hemorrhage is not likely to cause a dilated pupil on the left side. Intracerebral hemorrhage is a type of traumatic brain injury that involves bleeding within the brain tissue itself. Intracerebral hemorrhage can cause a gradual decrease in the GCS, but it usually causes neurological deficits that correspond to the location of the bleeding, such as weakness, numbness, or aphasia, not pupillary changes.
Choice D reason: This is correct because epidural hematoma can cause a dilated pupil on the left side. Epidural hematoma is a type of traumatic brain injury that involves bleeding between the dura mater and the skull. Epidural hematoma can cause a lucid interval, which is a period of normal consciousness followed by a sudden decrease in the GCS, and a dilated pupil on the opposite side of the injury, due to compression of the third cranial nerve. The nurse should notify the provider immediately and prepare for emergency surgery.
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