A nurse collects the health history of a 65-year-old client. Which of the following risk factors in the client's history puts the client at the highest risk for embolic stroke?
Atrial fibrillation.
Hypertension.
Diabetes.
Alcohol abuse.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because atrial fibrillation is the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular and rapid heart rate that causes poor blood flow and blood pooling in the heart chambers. This can lead to the formation of blood clots that can travel to the brain and block an artery, causing an embolic stroke.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because hypertension is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Hypertension is high blood pressure that puts stress on the blood vessels and increases the risk of bleeding or rupture. This can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because diabetes is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Diabetes is a condition that causes high blood sugar levels and damages the blood vessels and nerves. This can lead to poor circulation and increased risk of infection and ulcers, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because alcohol abuse is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Alcohol abuse is excessive consumption of alcohol that affects liver function and blood clotting factors. This can lead to liver disease and bleeding disorders, but not an embolic stroke.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is correct because the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 9. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that assesses the level of consciousness of a patient with a head injury by measuring three parameters: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The patient's eye opening score is 3 (opens eyes to verbal command), verbal response score is 4 (confused speech), and motor response score is 2 (withdraws from pain). The total score is the sum of these three scores, which is 9.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score is not 11. To get a score of 11, the patient would need to have a higher motor response score, such as 4 (withdraws to touch) or 5 (localizes to pain).
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score is not 15. To get a score of 15, the patient would need to have the highest scores for all three parameters, such as 4 (opens eyes spontaneously), 5 (oriented speech), and 6 (obeys commands).
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score is not 13. To get a score of 13, the patient would need to have a higher verbal response score, such as 5 (oriented speech).
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is correct because the lesion on the child's head is most likely a hemangioma, which is a benign tumor of blood vessels that appears as a red or purple mark on the skin. Hemangiomas are common in newborns and usually grow during the first year of life, then shrink and fade over several years. The nurse should reassure the client that hemangiomas are harmless and do not require treatment unless they interfere with vision, breathing, or feeding.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because the lesion on the child's head will not spread, but rather grow and shrink within a limited area. The nurse should not alarm the client by suggesting that the lesion will spread to other parts of the body or become malignant. The nurse should explain that hemangiomas are not contagious or infectious and do not affect the child's overall health or development.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the lesion on the child's head is not caused by scarring from the birth process, but rather by abnormal growth of blood vessels in the skin. The nurse should not confuse or misinform the client about the cause of the lesion. The nurse should explain that hemangiomas are not related to trauma, infection, or genetics, but rather to unknown factors that influence blood vessel formation during fetal development.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because the lesion on the child's head is not a precancerous lesion and does not need a referral to a dermatologist. The nurse should not scare or mislead the client by suggesting that the lesion is a sign of cancer or requires further evaluation or treatment. The nurse should explain that hemangiomas are benign and usually resolve on their own without any complications or sequelae.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.