A nurse collects the health history of a 65-year-old client. Which of the following risk factors in the client's history puts the client at the highest risk for embolic stroke?

Atrial fibrillation.

Hypertension.

Diabetes.

Alcohol abuse.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because atrial fibrillation is the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular and rapid heart rate that causes poor blood flow and blood pooling in the heart chambers. This can lead to the formation of blood clots that can travel to the brain and block an artery, causing an embolic stroke.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because hypertension is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Hypertension is high blood pressure that puts stress on the blood vessels and increases the risk of bleeding or rupture. This can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke, but not an embolic stroke.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because diabetes is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Diabetes is a condition that causes high blood sugar levels and damages the blood vessels and nerves. This can lead to poor circulation and increased risk of infection and ulcers, but not an embolic stroke.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because alcohol abuse is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Alcohol abuse is excessive consumption of alcohol that affects liver function and blood clotting factors. This can lead to liver disease and bleeding disorders, but not an embolic stroke.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because administering medications and electrolytes is not the primary purpose of inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. Medications and electrolytes can be given through other routes, such as IV or oral.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because dilating the stomach as a presurgical preparation is not a relevant Reason for inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. Dilating the stomach may be done before some types of gastric surgery, but it does not apply to peritonitis.

Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because stating that you will not be able to eat for several days is not an adequate explanation for inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. This statement does not address the rationale or the benefits of the procedure. It may also cause anxiety and resentment in the client.

Choice D Reason: This is the correct choice because removing secretions and decompressing the stomach is the main Reason for inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum, the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. It can cause abdominal distension, pain, nausea, and vomiting. A nasogastric tube can suction out the gastric contents and reduce the pressure and irritation in the abdomen.

A. The test is inconclusive B. The client has conductive hearing loss C. The client has normal hearing D. The client has sensorineural hearing loss

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason: The test is not inconclusive, but rather positive for conductive hearing loss. The Weber test involves placing a vibrating tuning fork on the center of the forehead and asking the client which ear hears the sound louder. It can help differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss.

Choice B Reason: This is the correct choice. The client has conductive hearing loss, which is a type of hearing loss that occurs when sound waves are blocked or reduced in the outer or middle ear. It can be caused by earwax, infection, fluid, perforation, or trauma. In conductive hearing loss, the Weber test shows lateralization to the affected ear, meaning the sound is heard louder in that ear.

Choice C Reason: The client does not have normal hearing, but rather conductive hearing loss. In normal hearing, the Weber test shows no lateralization, meaning the sound is heard equally in both ears.

Choice D Reason: The client does not have sensorineural hearing loss, but rather conductive hearing loss. Sensorineural hearing loss is a type of hearing loss that occurs when there is damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve. It can be caused by aging, noise exposure, disease, or drugs. In sensorineural hearing loss, the Weber test shows lateralization to the unaffected ear, meaning the sound is heard louder in that ear.

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A nurse collects the health history of a 65-year-old client. Which of the following risk factors in the client's history puts the client at the highest risk for embolic stroke?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse caring for a client with acute peritonitis reviews the physician's orders. The orders include an NPO diet, insertion of a nasogastric tube set to low intermittent suction, and IV fluids at 50 mL per hour. When asked why he will need the NG tube, what is the nurse's best reply?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is performing a Weber test on a client who reports difficulty hearing in his left ear. The client informs the nurse that he can hear the tone louder in his left ear. Which of the following does this result indicate?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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