A client arrives to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. The client has a loss of sensation and flaccid paralysis. Which of the following complications of an acute spinal cord injury does the nurse suspect?
Hemorrhage
Spinal shock
Apoptosis
Neurogenic shock
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: Hemorrhage is not a complication of an acute spinal cord injury, but rather a possible cause of it. Hemorrhage can occur due to trauma or rupture of blood vessels in or around the spinal cord, leading to compression and damage of the nerve tissue.
Choice B Reason: This is the correct choice. Spinal shock is a complication of an acute spinal cord injury that occurs within minutes to hours after the injury. It is characterized by loss of sensation, motor function, reflexes, and autonomic function below the level of injury. It is caused by transient disruption of nerve conduction and synaptic transmission in the spinal cord.
Choice C Reason: Apoptosis is not a complication of an acute spinal cord injury, but rather a cellular process that occurs after it. Apoptosis is programmed cell death that occurs in response to injury or stress. It can lead to further loss of neurons and glial cells in the spinal cord over time.
Choice D Reason: Neurogenic shock is a complication of an acute spinal cord injury that occurs within hours to days after the injury. It is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and peripheral vasodilation due to loss of sympathetic tone and unopposed parasympathetic activity. It is caused by disruption of autonomic pathways in the spinal cord.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because laceration is not an acute traumatic brain injury, but a type of wound that involves tearing or cutting of the skin or other tissues. Laceration can occur as a result of a motor vehicle accident, but it does not cause changes in the GCS or pupil size. The nurse should assess the client's skin for any signs of laceration, such as bleeding, swelling, or infection.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because acute subdural hematoma is not likely to cause a dilated pupil on the left side. Acute subdural hematoma is a type of traumatic brain injury that involves bleeding between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, which are two layers of the meninges that cover the brain. An acute subdural hematoma can cause a rapid decrease in the GCS, but it usually causes a dilated pupil on the same side as the injury, not on the opposite side.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because intracerebral hemorrhage is not likely to cause a dilated pupil on the left side. Intracerebral hemorrhage is a type of traumatic brain injury that involves bleeding within the brain tissue itself. Intracerebral hemorrhage can cause a gradual decrease in the GCS, but it usually causes neurological deficits that correspond to the location of the bleeding, such as weakness, numbness, or aphasia, not pupillary changes.
Choice D reason: This is correct because epidural hematoma can cause a dilated pupil on the left side. Epidural hematoma is a type of traumatic brain injury that involves bleeding between the dura mater and the skull. Epidural hematoma can cause a lucid interval, which is a period of normal consciousness followed by a sudden decrease in the GCS, and a dilated pupil on the opposite side of the injury, due to compression of the third cranial nerve. The nurse should notify the provider immediately and prepare for emergency surgery.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because atrial fibrillation is the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular and rapid heart rate that causes poor blood flow and blood pooling in the heart chambers. This can lead to the formation of blood clots that can travel to the brain and block an artery, causing an embolic stroke.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because hypertension is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Hypertension is high blood pressure that puts stress on the blood vessels and increases the risk of bleeding or rupture. This can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because diabetes is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Diabetes is a condition that causes high blood sugar levels and damages the blood vessels and nerves. This can lead to poor circulation and increased risk of infection and ulcers, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because alcohol abuse is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Alcohol abuse is excessive consumption of alcohol that affects liver function and blood clotting factors. This can lead to liver disease and bleeding disorders, but not an embolic stroke.
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