A nurse is teaching a class about physiological changes to hearing in older adult clients. Which of the following should the nurse include?
Decreased thickness of tympanic membranes
Decreased tinnitus
Decreased ear wax
Decreased ability to hear high-frequency sounds
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Decreased thickness of tympanic membranes is not a physiological change to hearing in older adult clients. The tympanic membranes are thin and flexible structures that vibrate in response to sound waves. The thickness of the tympanic membranes does not change significantly with age.
Choice B Reason: Decreased tinnitus is not a physiological change to hearing in older adult clients. Tinnitus is a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears that may be caused by various factors, such as noise exposure, ear infections, medications, or aging. Tinnitus may increase or decrease with age, depending on the underlying cause.
Choice C Reason: Decreased ear wax is not a physiological change to hearing in older adult clients. Ear wax is a natural substance that lubricates and protects the ear canal from dust, bacteria, and insects. Ear wax production may vary with age, but it does not affect hearing unless it accumulates and blocks the ear canal.
Choice D Reason: Decreased ability to hear high-frequency sounds is a physiological change to hearing in older adult clients. This is also known as presbycusis, which is a gradual loss of hearing that occurs as part of aging. Presbycusis affects the ability to hear high-pitched sounds, such as consonants, birdsong, or alarms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Requesting the charge nurse put the client on the surgery schedule is not the best first action, as it does not address the urgency of the situation. The client may have a perforated appendix, which is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice B Reason: Documenting the WBC count from the morning labs is not the best first action, as it does not address the client's current condition. The WBC count may be elevated due to inflammation or infection, but it does not indicate the severity of the problem.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct choice. Notifying the healthcare provider is the best first action, as it alerts them to the possibility of a perforated appendix and allows them to order appropriate tests and treatments.
Choice D Reason: Providing an antiemetic is not the best first action, as it does not address the underlying cause of the vomiting. The client may have peritonitis, which is inflammation of the abdominal cavity due to leakage of intestinal contents. An antiemetic may mask this symptom and delay diagnosis and treatment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Resting in bed for at least 2 days is not necessary after cataract surgery. The client should resume normal activities as soon as possible, but avoid strenuous activities that increase intraocular pressure.
Choice B reason: Deep breathing and coughing four times a day are not related to cataract surgery. This is a technique to prevent respiratory complications after abdominal or thoracic surgery.
Choice C reason: After two days, a creamy discharge is not normal. This could indicate an infection or inflammation of the eye. The client should report any changes in vision, pain, redness, swelling, or discharge to the provider.
Choice D reason: Keeping the head up and straight is the correct instruction. This helps to prevent increased intraocular pressure and bleeding in the eye. The client should also avoid rubbing or touching the eye, wearing sunglasses to protect from bright light, and using prescribed eye drops as directed.
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