A nurse is teaching a client about diagnostic vision tests. The nurse should include that which of the following tests is performed to diagnose macular degeneration?
Amsler grid.
Snellen chart.
Intraocular pressure.
Refraction test.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because the Amsler grid test is performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The Amsler grid is a pattern of straight lines with a dot in the center. The client is asked to look at the dot and report any distortions or missing areas in the grid. This can indicate damage to the macula, which is the central part of the retina that provides sharp vision.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because the Snellen chart test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The Snellen chart is a chart of letters of different sizes that are read from a distance. The client is asked to read the smallest line they can see clearly. This can indicate visual acuity or sharpness of vision, but not macular degeneration.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the intraocular pressure test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The intraocular pressure test measures the pressure inside the eye using a device called a tonometer. The client may feel a puff of air or a gentle touch on their eye. This can indicate glaucoma, which is a condition where increased pressure damages the optic nerve, but not macular degeneration.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because the refraction test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The refraction test measures how well the eye bends light rays using a device called a phoropter. The client looks through different lenses and reports which ones make their vision clearer. This can indicate refractive errors such as nearsightedness, farsightedness, or astigmatism, but not macular degeneration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: The burned area is yellow in color with severe edema is not a finding of a deep partial-thickness burn, but a superficial partial-thickness burn. A superficial partial-thickness burn involves the epidermis and the upper layer of the dermis, causing pain, redness, swelling, and blistering.
Choice B Reason: The burned area is black in color and pain is absent is not a finding of a deep partial-thickness burn, but a full-thickness burn. A full-thickness burn involves the epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissues, causing necrosis, charred skin, and loss of sensation.
Choice C Reason:This description aligns with a superficial partial-thickness (first-degree or mild second-degree) burn rather than a deep partial-thickness burn. Superficial partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and the upper portion of the dermis. These burns appear pink or red, often accompanied by moisture and blister formation due to fluid leakage from damaged capillaries. They are painful because nerve endings remain intact. Healing occurs within 10 to 21 days without significant scarring.
Choice D Reason:Deep partial-thickness burns extend deeper into the dermis, damaging a larger portion of skin structures, including sweat glands and hair follicles. These burns typically appear red or white and may have a soft eschar (dead tissue), which differentiates them from more superficial burns that do not develop eschar. Unlike full-thickness burns, nerve endings remain partially intact, so the patient may still experience some pain. These burns take more than 21 days to heal and often require skin grafting to prevent complications such as contractures or hypertrophic scarring.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because observing the client swallowing small sips of water before assisting with feeding may not reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Water is a thin liquid that can easily enter the lungs if the client has impaired swallowing or cough reflexes. The nurse should assess the client's need for thickened liquids or pureed foods and use a swallow screening tool to determine the appropriate consistency and amount of food and fluids.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because turning on the television for the client during meals may increase the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Television can distract the client from focusing on chewing and swallowing and cause them to eat too fast or too much. The nurse should provide a quiet and calm environment for the client during meals and encourage them to eat slowly and carefully.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because instructing the client to tilt their head back while swallowing may increase the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Tilting the head back can open the airway and allow food or fluids to enter the lungs. The nurse should instruct the client to tilt their head forward or tuck their chin while swallowing, which can close the airway and prevent aspiration.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because sitting the client upright 90 degrees then assisting the client with feeding can reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Sitting upright can help gravity move food and fluids down the esophagus and away from the lungs. The nurse should also keep the client upright for at least 30 minutes after eating and drinking to prevent regurgitation and aspiration.
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