A nurse at a provider's office is collecting physical data from an older adult client. Which of the following images should the nurse identify as an example of an expected age-related change?

A
B
C
D
The Correct Answer is D
A. Close-up of eyes with yellow sclera: Could indicate jaundice or liver dysfunction, which is not an expected part of aging and requires further evaluation.
B. Older adult man with a rounded back and head tilted forward: Suggests kyphosis, which can occur with aging but is usually linked to osteoporosis or vertebral fractures, not considered an inevitable, expected change.
C. Close-up of nose with a reddish-purple spot (possible bruise): Might result from trauma, coagulopathy, or medication side effects like anticoagulants, not a routine age-related change.
D. Hands with prominent veins, thin skin, and wrinkles: Thinning skin due to decreased subcutaneous fat. Wrinkles from reduced skin elasticity. Prominent veins due to loss of skin turgor and connective tissue. These are all normal physical findings in older adults.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Put on a gown: The gown is applied first to prevent contamination of the nurse’s clothing and skin. It acts as the foundational barrier and should be secured at the neck and waist to ensure full coverage before other PPE is donned.
B. Don a mask: The mask is put on second to protect the respiratory tract from airborne or droplet contaminants. Proper placement over the nose and mouth is essential before entering the client’s room to reduce inhalation of infectious particles.
C. Put on goggles: Goggles or a face shield are worn next to shield the eyes from splashes or sprays of infectious material. Since the eyes are a mucous membrane, they must be protected after covering the mouth and nose.
D. Don gloves: Gloves are put on last and should cover the cuffs of the gown to ensure a complete barrier. This final step helps prevent the transmission of pathogens via the hands when interacting with the client or the environment.
Correct Answer is ["B","E","F","H","I"]
Explanation
A. The WBC count was not provided in the nurse’s notes or diagnostic section. Without any indication of infection or abnormal lab values, there is no basis to report WBC.
B. Although the pain level is mild (2/10), it may be contributing to anxiety, increased heart rate (110/min), and elevated BP (158/96 mm Hg). Report in context as part of a comprehensive assessment. Also, confirming that the pain is not worsening or atypical in nature is essential preoperatively.
C. The abdomen is soft, rounded, non-distended, with no tenderness, and active bowel sounds in all four quadrants — all normal postoperative readiness findings for abdominal surgery.
D. Knowing the blood type is routine pre-op procedure and is not an abnormal or urgent finding that needs immediate reporting. It is only relevant if transfusion is anticipated, which is not suggested here.
E. The client is requesting further details about the risks and benefits of surgery, which raises a legal and ethical concern about informed consent. The provider must ensure the client fully understands the procedure, otherwise surgery cannot proceed.
F. This is significantly elevated compared to baseline (126/74). Pre-op hypertension can increase surgical and anesthesia risk and should be evaluated further. It may be due to anxiety, pain, or another condition.
G. Platelet count values were not given in the scenario. Without abnormal lab results or bleeding concerns, there is no indication to report this.
H. This is lower than the previous baseline (97%). An SpO₂ < 94% on room air can signal underlying respiratory issues, atelectasis, sedation effects, or cardiac dysfunction, all of which should be addressed preoperatively.
I. The client ate breakfast at 0730 before a scheduled procedure, violating NPO (nothing by mouth) protocol. This significantly increases the risk of aspiration under anesthesia and must be reported immediately. The surgery may need to be rescheduled.
J. Capillary refill < 2 seconds is normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. No issues with circulation are noted, so there's no reason to notify the provider.
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