A nurse at a family practice clinic receives a call from a client who is prescribed oral contraceptives but forgot to take one dose. The client reports she is in the first week of a 28-day cycle pack. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

“Stop taking the pills and switch to a different contraceptive method”

"Take a home pregnancy test.

"Do not have vaginal intercourse until after your next period."

"Take the missed dose now, then continue the medication as ordered."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

During the first week or last week of a 28-day cycle pack of oral contraceptives increases the risk of contraceptive failure. However, the client should take the missed dose as soon as they remember, even if it means taking two pills in one day. After taking the missed dose, the client should continue taking the remaining pills in the pack at the usual time, one pill per day. Due to increased risk of failure, client should use an emergency pill or condom for the next 7 days
A -stopping the pills and switching to a different contraceptive method is not necessary after missing one dose
B –missing a pill does not automatically indicate pregnancy. Testing can be considered in presence of typical signs and symptoms of pregnancy
C- abstaining from vaginal intercourse until after the next period is not necessary. Risk of pregnancy can be addressed by use of back up contraception like condoms.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Theophylline is a potent bronchodilator with potential side effects including tachycardia, heart arrhythmias, diuresis, diarrhea and stimulation of the central nervous system.

B-Theophylline causes diuresis

C-Theophylline causes diarrhea

D-Theophylline causes insomnia, restlessness

A. Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication. B. Decrease the infusion rate on the IV. C. Apply cold compresses to the neck area. D. Change the IV infusion site.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The symptoms described (flushing and tachycardia) are not indicative of an anaphylactic reaction, which typically includes symptoms like difficulty breathing, hives, or swelling. Documenting it as an anaphylactic reaction would be misleading and could lead to inappropriate management.
B. Slowing the infusion rate can help mitigate the symptoms of Red Man Syndrome, which is often related to the rate of vancomycin administration. The recommended infusion rate for vancomycin is generally over at least 60 minutes, and reducing the rate can help alleviate symptoms.
C. Applying cold compresses should help with pain but as important like documentation.
D. The infusion should be continued and not used again for the client.

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A nurse at a family practice clinic receives a call from a client who is prescribed oral contraceptives but forgot to take one dose. The client reports she is in the first week of a 28-day cycle pack. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has asthma and is about to Start taking theophylline (Theo-24). The nurse should tell the client that this medication might cause which of the following adverse effects?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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