A nurse administered nitroglycerin sublingually to a client who has angina pectoris and experienced chest pain.
The client states that his chest pain is relieved but now he has a headache.
Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

"A headache indicates tolerance to the medication.”.

"It sounds as if you are allergic to this medication.”.

"A headache is a common adverse effect of this medication, but it will probably occur less often over time.”.

"Your headache is probably a result of anxiety about the chest pain.”.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale:

Tolerance to nitroglycerin is not indicated by the presence of a headache. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve angina, and headaches can be a common side effect.

Choice B rationale:

Allergic reactions to nitroglycerin are rare, and a headache is not a typical symptom of an allergy to this medication.

Choice C rationale:

"A headache is a common adverse effect of this medication, but it will probably occur less often over time.”. This is the correct response. Nitroglycerin commonly causes headaches due to its vasodilatory effects. Patients often experience this side effect initially, but it tends to improve or occur less frequently with continued use. The nurse should educate the client about this and reassure them that the headaches should diminish over time.

Choice D rationale:

Anxiety may exacerbate chest pain, but it is not the likely cause of the headache. It is important to address the headache as a potential side effect of the medication.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice D rationale:

The nurse should seek clarification for the prescribed medication Propranolol when caring for a client with an exacerbation of asthma. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker, and its use can exacerbate bronchoconstriction and potentially worsen asthma symptoms. In patients with asthma, non-selective beta-blockers are generally contraindicated. The nurse should consult with the provider to ensure that Propranolol is the appropriate choice, as there may be safer alternatives to manage the client's condition without worsening their asthma.

Choice A rationale:

Prednisone is a corticosteroid commonly used to reduce inflammation and manage asthma exacerbations. It is an appropriate medication for asthma management and does not require clarification.

Choice B rationale:

Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that is also used in the management of asthma. It helps to reduce airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction. Montelukast is an appropriate choice for asthma and does not need further clarification.

Choice C rationale:

Aminophylline is a bronchodilator that can be used in the treatment of asthma. While it may have potential side effects and interactions, it is not the first medication that needs clarification in this scenario. Propranolol, due to its potential to worsen asthma symptoms, takes precedence.

A. Captopril. B. Metoprolol. C. Furosemide. D. Digoxin.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Captopril.

Choice A: Captopril Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. One of the common side effects of ACE inhibitors is a persistent, non-productive cough. This cough occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a potent peptide that can induce coughing.

Choice B: Metoprolol Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. Common side effects include dizziness, slow or irregular heartbeat, and unusual tiredness or weakness. However, it is not typically associated with a non-productive cough.

Choice C: Furosemide Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid retention (edema) in people with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or a kidney disorder. While it can cause side effects like diarrhea, constipation, and loss of appetite, a non-productive cough is not a typical side effect of Furosemide.

Choice D: Digoxin Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and irregular heartbeat. Common side effects include dizziness, slow or irregular heartbeat, and unusual tiredness or weakness. However, a non-productive cough is not a typical side effect of Digoxin.

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A nurse administered nitroglycerin sublingually to a client who has angina pectoris and experienced chest pain.The client states that his chest pain is relieved but now he has a headache.Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nurse administered nitroglycerin sublingually to a client who has angina pectoris and experienced chest pain.
The client states that his chest pain is relieved but now he has a headache.
Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?