A nurse administered nitroglycerin sublingually to a client who has angina pectoris and experienced chest pain.
The client states that his chest pain is relieved but now he has a headache.
Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

"A headache indicates tolerance to the medication.”.

"It sounds as if you are allergic to this medication.”.

"A headache is a common adverse effect of this medication, but it will probably occur less often over time.”.

"Your headache is probably a result of anxiety about the chest pain.”.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale:

Tolerance to nitroglycerin is not indicated by the presence of a headache. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve angina, and headaches can be a common side effect.

Choice B rationale:

Allergic reactions to nitroglycerin are rare, and a headache is not a typical symptom of an allergy to this medication.

Choice C rationale:

"A headache is a common adverse effect of this medication, but it will probably occur less often over time.”. This is the correct response. Nitroglycerin commonly causes headaches due to its vasodilatory effects. Patients often experience this side effect initially, but it tends to improve or occur less frequently with continued use. The nurse should educate the client about this and reassure them that the headaches should diminish over time.

Choice D rationale:

Anxiety may exacerbate chest pain, but it is not the likely cause of the headache. It is important to address the headache as a potential side effect of the medication.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is Choice A: Dull, aching calf pain.

Choice A rationale:

Dull, aching calf pain is a common symptom of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can occur postoperatively, especially after vascular surgery. This pain is often due to a blood clot forming in the deep veins of the leg.

Choice B rationale:

Positive Kernig's sign is associated with meningitis and not typically related to thrombus formation.

Choice C rationale:

Soft, pliable calf muscle is not indicative of a thrombus. A thrombus would more likely cause tenderness and swelling.

Choice D rationale:

Positive Homan's sign (pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot) can be an indicator of DVT, but it is less reliable than dull, aching calf pain.

A. Gastrointestinal bloating. B. Jugular vein distention. C. Tachycardia. D. Orthopnea. E. Dyspnea.

Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Gastrointestinal bloating is not a typical clinical manifestation of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the pulmonary circulation, leading to symptoms such as dyspnea and orthopnea, but not gastrointestinal symptoms.

Choice B rationale:

Jugular vein distention is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, the congestion typically occurs in the pulmonary circulation, leading to respiratory symptoms, whereas jugular vein distention is a sign of elevated central venous pressure often seen in right-sided heart failure.

Choice C rationale:

Tachycardia is a common clinical manifestation of left-sided heart failure. As the heart struggles to pump blood effectively, it compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain cardiac output.

Choice D rationale:

Orthopnea is a classic symptom of left-sided heart failure. Clients with left-sided heart failure often experience difficulty breathing when lying flat and find relief when sitting upright. This is due to the redistribution of blood in the lungs when changing positions.

Choice E rationale:

Dyspnea is another hallmark symptom of left-sided heart failure. It is caused by the accumulation of fluid in the lungs (pulmonary edema) due to the impaired ability of the left ventricle to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion in the pulmonary circulation.

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A nurse administered nitroglycerin sublingually to a client who has angina pectoris and experienced chest pain.The client states that his chest pain is relieved but now he has a headache.Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following vascular surgery. Which of the following manifestations should indicate to the nurse that the client has developed a thrombus?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]

Explanation

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A nurse administered nitroglycerin sublingually to a client who has angina pectoris and experienced chest pain.The client states that his chest pain is relieved but now he has a headache.Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

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A nurse administered nitroglycerin sublingually to a client who has angina pectoris and experienced chest pain.
The client states that his chest pain is relieved but now he has a headache.
Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?