A nurse is conducting a preoperative interview with a client who is scheduled for surgery.
The client states that he takes acetylsalicylic acid 81 mg. by mouth daily.
Prior to the client's upcoming surgery, the nurse should instruct the client to do which of the following?
Discontinue the dose 2 weeks before surgery.
Decrease the dose by half 2 weeks before surgery.
Take the originally prescribed dose the week of surgery.
Double the dose the week of surgery.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue the dose of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) 2 weeks before surgery. Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. Discontinuing it before surgery helps reduce the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. The recommended time frame for discontinuation may vary based on the patient's surgical procedure and the surgeon's preferences. However, 2 weeks is a common guideline to ensure that the antiplatelet effects of aspirin have diminished.
Choice B rationale:
Decreasing the dose by half 2 weeks before surgery may not be sufficient to minimize the risk of bleeding associated with aspirin. It is generally recommended to discontinue the medication completely to ensure that the antiplatelet effect has worn off.
Choice C rationale:
Taking the originally prescribed dose of aspirin the week of surgery is not advisable because it can increase the risk of bleeding during the surgical procedure. It is important to discontinue aspirin well before the surgery.
Choice D rationale:
Doubling the dose of aspirin the week of surgery is contraindicated as it can significantly increase the risk of bleeding. This choice is not recommended in the context of preoperative management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Tuberculosis treatment with rifampin typically lasts 6 to 9 months. Lifelong therapy is not required for TB, and unnecessary prolonged use increases the risk of drug resistance and hepatotoxicity.
Choice B rationale: Rifampin induces liver enzymes that accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, making them less effective. It does not cause amenorrhea, but it necessitates the use of non-hormonal backup contraception.
Choice C rationale: Rifampin causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. This can permanently stain soft contact lenses, so clients are advised to wear eyeglasses during the treatment course.
Choice D rationale: A yellow tint to the skin or sclera indicates jaundice, which is a sign of hepatotoxicity. This is a serious adverse effect rather than an expected reaction and must be reported immediately.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should identify that the client needs liver function tests while taking pyrazinamide. Pyrazinamide is one of the drugs used to treat tuberculosis, and it is known to potentially cause hepatotoxicity (liver damage). Regular monitoring of liver function tests, including liver enzymes like ALT and AST, is essential to detect any liver-related issues early and ensure the client's safety during the medication therapy.
Choice B rationale:
Thyroid function studies are not typically necessary while a client is taking pyrazinamide. Pyrazinamide is not known to have a direct effect on thyroid function.
Choice C rationale:
Blood glucose levels do not need to be monitored specifically due to pyrazinamide therapy. Although some antituberculosis drugs may affect blood sugar levels, pyrazinamide is not a common culprit for such side effects.
Choice D rationale:
Gallbladder studies are not typically indicated while taking pyrazinamide. Pyrazinamide is not known to cause specific issues related to the gallbladder. Monitoring liver function is more critical due to its potential hepatotoxicity.
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