A director of nursing in a rehabilitation facility is planning to measure the quality of care provided. Which of the following audits should the director plan to use after clients are discharged to gather information about quality of care?

Prospective audit

Outcome audit

Structure audit

Concurrent audit

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Prospective audit: A prospective audit evaluates care before it is provided, focusing on planned interventions rather than outcomes after discharge. It is not used to assess post-care quality.

B. Outcome audit: Outcome audits measure the results of care, such as client recovery, complication rates, or satisfaction, after interventions have been completed. This type of audit is appropriate for gathering information about quality of care following discharge.

C. Structure audit: Structure audits assess the resources, staffing, and organizational infrastructure used to deliver care. They do not measure client outcomes or post-discharge quality.

D. Concurrent audit: Concurrent audits evaluate care while it is being provided, allowing immediate feedback and corrections. They are performed during hospitalization, not after discharge.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Check the compatibility of cefazolin with the client's existing IV fluids: Compatibility is important to prevent precipitation or inactivation of the drug, but it should be done only after confirming the medication is safe for the client to receive.

B. Assess the IV for patency: Ensuring the IV line is patent is necessary before administration to avoid infiltration or extravasation, but it is not the first priority when preparing a first-time antibiotic dose.

C. Review the client's allergy history: Reviewing allergies is the first and most critical step, as cefazolin is a cephalosporin that can cause severe allergic reactions, particularly in clients with a history of beta-lactam (e.g., penicillin) allergy. Administering the drug without this check could cause life-threatening anaphylaxis.

D. Obtain the reconstituted antibiotic from the pharmacy: Securing the medication from the pharmacy is part of preparation, but this should only occur after confirming it is safe for the client to receive based on allergy status.

A. Splitting behavior B. Emotional lability C. Self-centered behavior D. Suspicious of others

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Splitting behavior: Splitting, or viewing people as all good or all bad, is characteristic of borderline personality disorder rather than histrionic personality disorder. It reflects difficulty integrating positive and negative aspects of self and others.

B. Emotional lability: Clients with histrionic personality disorder often display rapidly shifting emotions, exaggerated expression of feelings, and attention-seeking behaviors. Emotional lability is a hallmark feature, making this an expected manifestation.

C. Self-centered behavior: While clients with histrionic personality disorder may seek attention, overt self-centeredness and grandiosity are more characteristic of narcissistic personality disorder rather than histrionic traits.

D. Suspicious of others: Suspiciousness and distrust are typical of paranoid personality disorder. Clients with histrionic personality disorder are generally sociable and seek approval rather than displaying pervasive mistrust.

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A director of nursing in a rehabilitation facility is planning to measure the quality of care provided. Which of the following audits should the director plan to use after clients are discharged to gather information about quality of care?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of cefazolin via intermittent IV infusion to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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