A nurse is performing wound care for a client who has an abdominal incision. Which of the following techniques should the nurse implement?
Cleanse the insertion site of the drain using a circular motion toward the center.
Irrigate the wound with a low-pressure flow of solution.
Irrigate the wound using a 10-mL syringe.
Cleanse the wound starting at the bottom and moving upward.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Cleanse the insertion site of the drain using a circular motion toward the center: Proper technique involves cleaning from the least contaminated area (the center) outward to the surrounding skin, not toward the center, to prevent introducing pathogens into the wound.
B. Irrigate the wound with a low-pressure flow of solution: Low-pressure irrigation helps remove debris and exudate without damaging tissue or disrupting healing. It is a safe and effective method for cleansing an abdominal incision.
C. Irrigate the wound using a 10-mL syringe: Using a small syringe can create high-pressure flow, which may traumatize tissue. Larger volume syringes (e.g., 30–60 mL) with controlled, low-pressure flow are recommended for wound irrigation.
D. Cleanse the wound starting at the bottom and moving upward: Wound cleaning should proceed from the least contaminated area (top or center of the incision) toward more contaminated areas (periphery) to reduce the risk of introducing bacteria into the wound.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- Hemoglobin 12 g/dL: The increase from 9.1 g/dL to 12 g/dL indicates that the client’s anemia is resolving. This suggests effective treatment or stabilization following blood loss, improving oxygen-carrying capacity and overall perfusion.
- Hematocrit 36%: The rise from 27% to 36% reflects an improvement in the proportion of red blood cells in circulation. This correlates with better tissue oxygenation and a positive response to interventions such as a blood transfusion.
- Blood pressure 112/74 mm Hg: The increase from 90/50 mm Hg indicates improved hemodynamic stability. This suggests the client is no longer hypovolemic and is better able to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs.
- Heart rate 95/min: The decrease from 118/min shows a reduction in compensatory tachycardia. This reflects improved circulatory status and decreased physiological stress following stabilization of blood volume and oxygenation.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- WBC count 6,700/mm³: The WBC count remains unchanged from admission. While within normal limits, it does not specifically indicate improvement in anemia or hemodynamic status, which are the primary concerns in this scenario.
- Respiratory rate 18/min: The respiratory rate is unchanged and within normal limits. Although stable, it does not provide a direct measure of improvement in anemia or perfusion.
- Temperature 37.5°C (99.5°F): The temperature is stable but slightly elevated. While not concerning, it does not reflect a specific improvement in the client’s primary condition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Urine output 20 mL/hr: This urine output is below the recommended minimum of 30 mL/hr and may indicate magnesium toxicity or worsening renal perfusion. It is not a therapeutic effect and requires prompt evaluation.
B. BP 150/92 mm Hg: This blood pressure is still elevated and does not indicate optimal control of preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures, not primarily to lower blood pressure, so this is not a measure of therapeutic effect.
C. Absence of eclampsia: Magnesium sulfate is administered in preeclampsia to prevent the onset of eclampsia (seizures). The absence of seizure activity indicates that the medication is having its intended therapeutic effect.
D. FHR 116/min: This fetal heart rate is within the normal baseline range of 110–160/min, but it is not a direct therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate. It is more a reflection of fetal well-being rather than the drug’s primary purpose.
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