A client with delusions tells the nurse, "You aren't doing your job.
Go get those people over there and shoot them before they get me." Which statement is the nurse's best response?
"There is no one who will hurt you.".
"You seem quite frightened right now.".
"You are in a safe place.No one can get to you here.".
"What would you like to see me do to protect you?".
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. “You seem quite frightened right now.”.
Choice A rationale:
While reassuring the client that no one will hurt them is well-intentioned, it may not effectively address the client’s immediate emotional state or validate their feelings.
Choice B rationale:
Acknowledging the client’s fear helps validate their emotions and opens a pathway for further therapeutic communication. It shows empathy and understanding, which can help build trust and provide comfort.
Choice C rationale:
Telling the client they are in a safe place is reassuring, but it may not fully address the client’s immediate emotional distress or validate their feelings.
Choice D rationale:
Asking the client what they would like the nurse to do to protect them might reinforce the delusion and could potentially escalate the situation. It is more effective to acknowledge the client’s feelings and provide reassurance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Observing for signs of depression is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care. This patient has a history of struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension, and is now approved for gastroplasty. Weight management surgery can have significant psychological implications, and patients may experience depression or other emotional issues. Identifying signs of depression and providing appropriate support and resources is crucial for the client's overall well-being and successful outcomes.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring for urinary incontinence is not the top priority in this case. While it's important to assess and address urinary incontinence when necessary, it is not the most critical concern for a client undergoing gastroplasty. Depression and post-surgical complications related to weight management surgery take precedence.
Choice C rationale:
Providing a wide variety of meal choices is not the most important intervention at this stage. After gastroplasty, dietary choices are typically restricted, and the focus is on a controlled and healthy diet. The priority is addressing the psychological and emotional aspects of the client's care, as well as monitoring for surgical complications.
Choice D rationale:
Applying sequential compression stockings is not the most crucial intervention in this situation. While prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is important, it is not the top priority compared to addressing potential depression and emotional well-being in a client who has struggled with weight management for years.
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