A nurse is caring for a client who has meningitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. The provider orders penicillin G IV for this client.
Before administering the medication, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Check the client’s temperature
Assess the client’s level of consciousness
Ask the client about any history of allergies
Obtain a blood sample for culture and sensitivity.
The Correct Answer is C
This is because penicillin G is a beta-lactam antibiotic that can cause severe allergic reactions in some people, such as anaphylaxis, rash, or angioedema. Therefore, the nurse should always check for any history of allergies before administering penicillin G or any other beta-lactam antibiotic.
Choice A is wrong because checking the client’s temperature is not a priority action before giving penicillin G. Although fever is a common sign of meningitis, it does not affect the administration of penicillin
Choice B is wrong because assessing the client’s level of consciousness is not a priority action before giving penicillin G. Although altered mental status is a common sign of meningitis, it does not affect the administration of penicillin
Choice D is wrong because obtaining a blood sample for culture and sensitivity is not a priority action before giving penicillin G. Although culture and sensitivity tests are important to identify the causative organism and the appropriate antibiotic, they should not delay the initiation of empiric therapy for meningitis. Penicillin G is effective against Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This statement indicates a need for further education because oseltamivir does not prevent the transmission of influenza virus to others.Oseltamivir is an antiviral drug that can shorten the duration of symptoms, reduce the risk of complications, and work best if started within 48 hours of symptom onset. However, it does not eliminate the virus from the body or provide immunity against future infections.Therefore, the client should still practice good hygiene and avoid contact with others who are at high risk of influenza complications.
Choice A is wrong because oseltamivir can shorten the duration of symptoms by about one day if taken within 48 hours of symptom onset.
Choice C is wrong because oseltamivir works best if started within 48 hours of symptom onset, as it inhibits the viral replication and reduces the viral load.
Choice D is wrong because oseltamivir may cause nausea and vomiting as side effects in some people, especially if taken without food.These side effects are usually mild and transient and can be minimized by taking the medication with food or milk.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Amoxicillin-clavulanate is an antibiotic that belongs to the penicillin group and is effective against Escherichia coli, the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs).It works by inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis and preventing the bacteria from producing an enzyme that makes them resistant to penicillin.
Choice B is wrong becauseVancomycin is wrong because it is an antibiotic that is used to treat serious infections caused by gram-positive bacteria, such as methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).It is not effective against gram-negative bacteria, such as Escherichia coli.
Choice C is wrong becausePenicillin G is wrong because it is an antibiotic that is effective against some gram-positive bacteria, such as Streptococcus and Neisseria.However, many strains of Escherichia coli are resistant to penicillin G and can produce an enzyme called beta-lactamase that breaks down the antibiotic.
Choice D is wrong becauseAcyclovir is wrong because it is an antiviral drug that is used to treat infections caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) and varicella-zoster virus (VZV).It has no activity against bacteria, such as Escherichia coli.
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