An unresponsive male victim of a diving accident is brought to the emergency department where it is determined that immediate surgery is required to save his life.
The client is accompanied by a close friend, but no family members are available.
Which action should the nurse take first?
Carry on with surgical preparation of the client without a signed informed consent.
Ask the man's friend to sign the informed consent since the client is unresponsive.
Notify the unit manager that an emergency court order is needed to allow surgery.
Continue to provide life support until a thorough search for a guardian is completed.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice a. Carry on with surgical preparation of the client without a signed informed consent.
Choice A rationale:
In emergency situations where immediate surgery is required to save a patient’s life and no family members are available, the doctrine of presumed consent applies. This means that healthcare providers can proceed with necessary treatment without a signed informed consent to prevent serious harm or death.
Choice B rationale:
Asking the man’s friend to sign the informed consent is not appropriate because friends are not legally authorized to provide consent for medical procedures unless they have legal documentation proving their authority.
Choice C rationale:
Notifying the unit manager for an emergency court order would delay the necessary surgery, which could be detrimental to the patient’s health. In emergencies, immediate action is required, and waiting for a court order is not feasible.
Choice D rationale:
Continuing to provide life support while searching for a guardian would also delay the necessary surgery. In life-threatening situations, immediate surgical intervention is prioritized over finding a legal guardian.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Encouraging the client to face their fear gradually is an appropriate nursing intervention for a client with a phobia. This approach is consistent with exposure therapy, which is a widely recognized and effective treatment for phobias. Exposure therapy involves gradually exposing the client to the feared object or situation in a controlled and supportive environment. By doing so, the client can learn to confront and manage their fear over time. This approach is evidence-based and helps the client build resilience and reduce anxiety.
Choice B rationale:
Administering benzodiazepines as needed for acute anxiety (Choice B) is not the first-line treatment for phobias. While benzodiazepines can provide temporary relief from anxiety symptoms, they do not address the underlying phobia and can lead to dependence and tolerance with prolonged use. Moreover, they are generally reserved for acute anxiety episodes and not considered a primary treatment for phobias.
Choice C rationale:
Providing psychoeducation about the causes and effects of phobias (Choice C) is a valuable component of treatment, but it alone may not be sufficient. Psychoeducation can help clients understand the nature of their phobia and reduce stigma, but it should be combined with evidence-based therapies like exposure therapy for comprehensive care.
Choice D rationale:
Teaching the client relaxation techniques to manage anxiety (Choice D) can be a helpful adjunct to treatment, but it is not the primary intervention for phobias. Relaxation techniques can be part of a broader strategy to reduce anxiety, but the client also needs exposure therapy or cognitive-behavioral therapy to address the phobia directly.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
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