A client with renal calculi is experiencing hematuria and reports severe flank pain.
Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Obtain a urine specimen for analysis.
Administer a prescribed opioid analgesic.
Strain the urine for the presence of stones.
Prepare the client for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan.
Prepare the client for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Obtaining a urine specimen for analysis is an important step in the assessment of the client with renal calculi. However, it is not the most immediate intervention when the client is experiencing severe flank pain and hematuria. Pain management should take precedence.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct answer. Severe flank pain in a client with renal calculi is indicative of renal colic, which is typically excruciating. Administering a prescribed opioid analgesic is the priority to relieve the client's pain and distress.
Choice C rationale:
Straining the urine for the presence of stones is an essential nursing intervention to identify and collect any passed stones. However, it is not the most immediate action when the client is in severe pain. Pain management is the priority.
Choice D rationale:
Preparing the client for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan is an important diagnostic step to assess the location and size of the renal calculi. However, it is not the most immediate intervention when the client is in severe pain and distress. Pain management should come first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A - The injury may require medical attention, as the mother mentioned that the boy is in pain. Correct
This is the correct answer, as it reflects the nurse's assessment of the injury and the appropriate action to take. The nurse should consider the mother's report of pain as a valid indicator of the severity of the injury, and should not dismiss or minimize it.
The nurse should also observe the boy's arm and shoulder for any signs of fracture, dislocation, swelling, bruising, or deformity, and ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 0 to 10. The nurse should then decide whether to refer the boy to a physician or an emergency department for further evaluation and treatment.
B - The abrasions on the boy's leg and hand have healed.
This is not the correct answer, as it does not reflect the nurse's assessment of the injury or the appropriate action to take. The abrasions on the boy's leg and hand are not relevant to his current complaint of arm and shoulder pain, and do not indicate whether he needs medical attention or not. The nurse should focus on the boy's primary concern and not distract him with unrelated questions or comments.
C - The mother describes what she did after her child got injured.
This is not the correct answer, as it does not reflect the nurse's assessment of the injury or the appropriate action to take. The mother's description of what she did after her child got injured may provide some useful information, such as how long ago the injury occurred, what first aid measures were applied, and whether there was any improvement or worsening of symptoms. However, it does not directly answer the question of whether the injury requires medical attention or not. The nurse should listen to the mother's account, but also perform a physical examination and ask relevant questions to assess the injury.
D - The boy lacks coordination when answering the nurse's questions.
This is not the correct answer, as it does not reflect the nurse's assessment of the injury or the appropriate action to take. The boy's lack of coordination when answering the nurse's questions may indicate a possible head injury, concussion, or shock, which are serious complications that require immediate medical attention. However, it does not directly relate to his arm and shoulder pain, which is his main complaint.
The nurse should assess the boy's mental status and neurological function, but also evaluate his arm and shoulder for any signs of damage or inflammation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Exenatide does not work in the same way as insulin in lowering blood glucose levels. Exenatide is a glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 agonist) that works by stimulating insulin secretion in response to elevated blood glucose levels, slowing gastric emptying, and suppressing glucagon release. It does not act like exogenous insulin.
Choice B rationale:
Injecting exenatide within 30 minutes before or after a meal is the correct instruction. This timing is essential because exenatide works best when it is coordinated with meals to help control post-meal blood glucose spikes.
Choice C rationale:
There are precautions about taking exenatide with other medications. It is important for the client to discuss all medications, including potential interactions, with their healthcare provider. Some medications may need to be adjusted when taken with exenatide.
Choice D rationale:
Notifying the healthcare provider if abdominal pain occurs is a valid instruction. Exenatide can sometimes cause gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal pain. It is essential for the client to report any adverse effects to their healthcare provider for appropriate management.
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