A client with renal calculi is experiencing hematuria and reports severe flank pain.
Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Obtain a urine specimen for analysis.
Administer a prescribed opioid analgesic.
Strain the urine for the presence of stones.
Prepare the client for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan.
Prepare the client for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Obtaining a urine specimen for analysis is an important step in the assessment of the client with renal calculi. However, it is not the most immediate intervention when the client is experiencing severe flank pain and hematuria. Pain management should take precedence.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct answer. Severe flank pain in a client with renal calculi is indicative of renal colic, which is typically excruciating. Administering a prescribed opioid analgesic is the priority to relieve the client's pain and distress.
Choice C rationale:
Straining the urine for the presence of stones is an essential nursing intervention to identify and collect any passed stones. However, it is not the most immediate action when the client is in severe pain. Pain management is the priority.
Choice D rationale:
Preparing the client for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan is an important diagnostic step to assess the location and size of the renal calculi. However, it is not the most immediate intervention when the client is in severe pain and distress. Pain management should come first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: While monitoring temperature is important for a client with meningitis to track the resolution of infection, it is not a prerequisite for administering penicillin. It does not prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice B rationale: Assessing the level of consciousness is a critical part of the neurological assessment for meningitis. However, it is not the specific priority action required before administering a first dose of an antibiotic.
Choice C rationale: Penicillin carries a high risk of anaphylaxis. The nurse must verify the client's allergy history to ensure safety, as a previous reaction to penicillin or cephalosporins could lead to a fatal allergic response.
Choice D rationale: While cultures must be obtained before starting antibiotics, this question specifies the provider has already ordered the medication for an identified organism (Streptococcus pneumoniae), implying the diagnostic cultures have already been completed.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Stopping the heparin infusion immediately is essential when the client's aPTT is significantly elevated (in this case, 120 seconds). A prolonged aPTT indicates a higher risk of bleeding, and discontinuing the heparin infusion is a crucial step in preventing further bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Administering protamine sulfate is necessary when a client on heparin therapy experiences excessive bleeding or if the aPTT is significantly elevated. Protamine sulfate acts as a heparin antagonist and can reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin.
Choice C rationale:
Notifying the healthcare provider of the significantly prolonged aPTT is essential because it may indicate a need for adjustments in the heparin dosage or therapy. The provider can determine the appropriate course of action based on the client's clinical condition.
Choice D rationale:
Drawing a prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) level is not necessary in this situation. PT and INR are more relevant parameters when assessing clients on warfarin therapy, not heparin.
Choice E rationale:
Monitoring the client for signs and symptoms of bleeding is crucial when the aPTT is prolonged, as it indicates a higher risk of bleeding. This action allows for early detection and intervention to prevent complications.
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