A client with chronic cirrhosis has esophageal varices.
It is most important for the nurse to monitor the client for the onset of which problem?
Anorexia
Brown, foamy urine.
Clay-colored stool
Hematemesis
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Anorexia is a common symptom of cirrhosis, but it is not the most immediate concern in a client with esophageal varices.
Anorexia can result from various factors, including impaired liver function, hormonal imbalances, early satiety due to ascites,
and nausea.
While it's important to address anorexia to maintain nutritional status, it doesn't directly indicate a life-threatening
complication like bleeding varices.
Choice B rationale:
Brown, foamy urine is a characteristic of kidney problems, specifically proteinuria.
It's not directly associated with esophageal varices or their complications.
While cirrhosis can affect kidney function due to fluid imbalances and impaired filtering, brown, foamy urine wouldn't be the
primary indicator of bleeding varices.
Choice C rationale:
Clay-colored stool is a sign of biliary obstruction, which can occur in cirrhosis due to impaired bile flow.
However, it's not a direct indicator of bleeding varices.
Clay-colored stool results from a lack of bile pigments in the stool, which give it its typical brown color.
Choice D rationale:
Hematemesis, or vomiting of blood, is the most critical symptom to monitor in a client with esophageal varices.
Here's why:
Esophageal varices are enlarged, swollen veins in the esophagus that develop due to increased pressure in the portal venous
system, a common consequence of cirrhosis.
These varices are fragile and prone to rupture, which can lead to massive, life-threatening bleeding.
Hematemesis is a clear sign that variceal bleeding has occurred and requires immediate intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Suppressor T-cells (also known as regulatory T-cells) play a role in regulating the immune response, but their proliferation is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. In fact, HIV can disrupt the function of suppressor T-cells, leading to an impaired ability to control immune responses.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are important for killing infected cells, but their deficiency is not the direct cause of immune suppression in HIV. However, HIV can indirectly lead to a deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells by disrupting their production and function.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and IgM is an early antibody produced in response to infection. However, an increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not characteristic of HIV infection. In fact, HIV can impair B-cell function, leading to decreased antibody production.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. HIV primarily targets and destroys helper T-cells (also known as CD4+ T-cells). These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells. The depletion of helper T-cells leads to a progressive weakening of the immune system, rendering the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.
Specific mechanisms of CD4+ T-cell destruction by HIV:
Direct infection and lysis: HIV can directly infect CD4+ T-cells and replicate within them, eventually leading to the death of the infected cells.
CD4+ T-cell apoptosis: HIV can induce programmed cell death (apoptosis) in CD4+ T-cells through various mechanisms, including the activation of pro-apoptotic pathways and the disruption of anti-apoptotic signals.
Immune dysregulation: HIV infection can also dysregulate the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation and immune activation. This can further contribute to CD4+ T-cell depletion and dysfunction.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While teaching the client about infection prevention measures is important, it is not the most immediate priority in this situation. The client is already potentially contagious, and these measures may not be sufficient to prevent transmission if the client is not properly isolated.
It's crucial to remember that the client may be experiencing cognitive impairment due to illness, making it harder to fully comprehend and adhere to instructions.
Additionally, some clients may not have access to or be able to afford masks and hand sanitizer, potentially hindering compliance with these measures.
Choice B rationale:
Isolating the client is the most critical action to prevent the spread of COVID-19 to others. This includes separating the client from other patients, family members, and healthcare workers who are not wearing proper PPE.
PPE, such as gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection, creates a barrier between the healthcare worker and the client, minimizing the risk of transmission via direct contact or droplets.
Proper isolation techniques include placing the client in a designated negative-pressure isolation room, if available, or designating a separate area within a multi-bed room.
It's essential to restrict the client's movement within the healthcare facility and limit visitors to essential personnel only.
Choice C rationale:
Reporting the COVID-19 result to the local health department is important for tracking and managing the spread of the virus; however, it is not the most immediate priority in this situation.
The priority is to prevent further transmission by isolating the client.
Choice D rationale:
Counseling family members to monitor for symptoms is important, but it is not the most immediate priority in this situation. The priority is to prevent transmission by isolating the client.
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