The patient is a 65-year-old male admitted to the medical surgical unit after a total cholecystectomy.
He has a past medical history of hypertension, heart failure, type 1 diabetes mellitus, cholelithiasis, and cholangitis. Which physician orders would the nurse anticipate being prescribed after reporting findings? Select all that apply.
Stat ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) of chest.
Place patient on oxygen 2 to 4 liters and maintain oxygen saturation at or above 95%.
Stat 2 views chest x-ray.
Send sputum for culture & sensitivity stat.
Complete blood count (CBC), basic metabolic panel (BMP), and blood cultures.
Start the patient on antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer : B,C,E,F
B. Place patient on oxygen 2 to 4 liters and maintain oxygen saturation at or above 95%.
Rationale:
Hypoxemia: Patients who have undergone cholecystectomy are at risk for developing hypoxemia due to various factors, including:
Atelectasis: Collapsed lung tissue can impair gas exchange, leading to low oxygen levels in the blood.
Pneumonia: A potential post-operative complication that can cause inflammation and fluid buildup in the lungs, hindering oxygen uptake.
Pain: Post-surgical pain can inhibit deep breathing and coughing, which are essential for maintaining adequate lung function.
Oxygen Therapy: Supplementing oxygen helps to increase oxygen saturation and improve overall tissue oxygenation, reducing the strain on the heart and other organs.
Oxygen Saturation Goal: Maintaining oxygen saturation at or above 95% ensures that the patient's tissues are receiving sufficient oxygen to meet their metabolic needs.
C. Stat 2 views chest x-ray.
Rationale:
Chest X-ray: A valuable diagnostic tool that can visualize the lungs and surrounding structures, aiding in the assessment of: Atelectasis: Appears as areas of increased density on the x-ray, indicating collapsed lung tissue.
Pneumonia: May present as consolidation (solid white areas) or infiltrates (patchy areas of increased density) on the x-ray. Pleural effusion: Fluid accumulation in the pleural space, which can impair lung expansion and gas exchange.
Pneumothorax: Presence of air in the pleural space, which can cause lung collapse and respiratory distress.
Early Detection: Prompt identification of respiratory complications through chest x-ray allows for timely interventions and prevents further deterioration of the patient's condition.
E. Complete blood count (CBC), basic metabolic panel (BMP), and blood cultures.
Rationale:
CBC: Assesses for signs of infection or inflammation, including:
Elevated white blood cell count (leukocytosis) Increased neutrophils (neutrophilia)
Anemia (low red blood cell count)
BMP: Evaluates electrolyte and kidney function, which can be affected by infections and post-operative complications.
Blood Cultures: Determines the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, allowing for identification of the causative organism and guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy.
F. Start the patient on antibiotic therapy.
Rationale:
Infection Risk: The patient's history of cholangitis and recent surgery increase the risk of infection. Prophylactic Antibiotics: Often administered after cholecystectomy to prevent post-operative infections.
Early Intervention: Prompt initiation of antibiotic therapy is crucial in managing infections and preventing serious complications such as sepsis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the dressing off would expose the wound to air and potential contamination, which could delay healing and increase the risk of infection.
While consulting with the healthcare provider is always an option, it's not necessary in this case as the nurse has the knowledge and skills to select an appropriate dressing.
Additionally, leaving the wound uncovered could cause pain and discomfort to the patient, as well as potentially disrupt the delicate granulation tissue that has already formed.
Choice C rationale:
Increasing the frequency of dressing changes could disrupt the healing process and irritate the wound bed.
It's generally recommended to change dressings only as often as necessary to keep the wound clean and moist. Excessive dressing changes can also be costly and time-consuming for both the patient and the healthcare provider. Choice D rationale:
Transparent dressings are not ideal for stage 3 pressure injuries with significant granulation tissue. These dressings are more suitable for wounds with minimal exudate and that are not actively healing. Transparent dressings can also adhere to the wound bed, causing pain and trauma upon removal.
Choice B rationale:
Hydrocolloidal gel dressings are a good choice for stage 3 pressure injuries with granulation tissue because they: Provide a moist wound environment, which promotes healing.
Absorb exudate, which helps to prevent maceration of the surrounding skin. Form a protective barrier over the wound, which helps to prevent infection.
Are comfortable for the patient and can be left in place for several days.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypothermia is a condition in which the body's core temperature falls below 95°F (35°C). It is not directly indicated by the client's vital signs as presented in the question.
Other factors that would more strongly suggest hypothermia include exposure to cold environments, immersion in cold water, or impaired thermoregulation due to conditions like hypothyroidism or alcohol intoxication.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension is a condition in which blood pressure is abnormally low. It is also not directly indicated by the client's vital signs as presented in the question.
Hypertension, on the other hand, is a condition in which blood pressure is abnormally high.
The client's history of hypertension, and the fact that he takes enalapril (an antihypertensive medication), suggests that he may be more likely to experience hypertension than hypotension.
Choice D rationale:
Hypertension, as mentioned above, is a condition in which blood pressure is abnormally high.
While it's possible that the client is experiencing hypertension, the question specifically asks about the condition indicated by the client's vital signs.
Tachypnea, or rapid breathing, is a more direct indication of the client's respiratory distress, which is a common symptom of pneumonia.
Choice B rationale:
Tachypnea is the most likely condition indicated by the client's vital signs.
Tachypnea is often a sign of respiratory distress, which can be caused by a variety of conditions, including pneumonia. When a person has pneumonia, their lungs become inflamed and filled with fluid, making it difficult to breathe.
This can lead to rapid, shallow breathing, which is called tachypnea.
Other signs of respiratory distress that may be present in a client with pneumonia include: Coughing
Wheezing Chest pain
Feeling short of breath
Use of accessory muscles to breathe (e.g., muscles in the neck and chest) Nasal flaring
Cyanosis (a bluish tint to the skin)
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.