The nurse is discussing dietary choices with a client who is newly diagnosed with celiac disease. Which menu choice by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Wild rice.
Oatmeal.
Corn chips.
Potatoes.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Wild rice is naturally gluten-free. It is not a grain, but rather a semi-aquatic grass seed. It is safe for individuals with celiac disease to consume.
Wild rice is a good source of nutrients. It is high in fiber, protein, and antioxidants, and it contains a variety of vitamins and minerals, including manganese, phosphorus, magnesium, and zinc. These nutrients can help to support overall health and well-being.
Wild rice can be a versatile ingredient in many dishes. It can be used in salads, soups, stews, pilafs, and even desserts.
Choice B rationale:
Oatmeal is not gluten-free. It is made from oats, which are a type of cereal grain that contains gluten. Individuals with celiac disease must avoid gluten, as it can trigger an autoimmune reaction that damages the small intestine.
Even small amounts of gluten can cause harm. Consuming even a small amount of oatmeal can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, fatigue, and headache in individuals with celiac disease.
Long-term damage can occur. If individuals with celiac disease continue to consume gluten, it can lead to long-term health problems, such as malnutrition, osteoporosis, and infertility.
Choice C rationale:
Corn chips are typically gluten-free. However, it is important to check the label to be sure, as some brands may contain gluten- containing ingredients, such as wheat flour or barley malt.
Reading labels is essential. Individuals with celiac disease should always read food labels carefully to ensure that products are gluten-free.
Choice D rationale:
Potatoes are naturally gluten-free. They are a safe and healthy food choice for individuals with celiac disease.
Potatoes are a versatile and nutritious food. They are a good source of carbohydrates, fiber, potassium, vitamin C, and other nutrients.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Gravity Facilitates Drainage:
Positioning the patient strategically utilizes gravity to encourage the flow of fluids and secretions away from the surgical site. This aids in preventing fluid accumulation and potential infection.
Reduces Pressure on Surgical Site:
Certain positions can minimize pressure on the incision and internal organs, promoting healing and reducing discomfort.
This is particularly important for patients with comorbidities like hypertension and heart failure, as they may have impaired wound healing and be more susceptible to respiratory complications.
Enhances Respiratory Function:
Specific positions can improve lung expansion and ventilation, which is essential for patients with a history of heart failure or respiratory issues.
This helps prevent atelectasis (collapsed lung areas) and pneumonia, which are common postoperative risks.
Common Post-Cholecystectomy Positions:
Semi-Fowler's Position:
The head of the bed is elevated 30-45 degrees, with knees slightly bent.
This position eases breathing, reduces pressure on the incision, and promotes drainage of fluids. Right Side-Lying Position:
The patient lies on their right side with a pillow between their knees.
This position encourages drainage from the liver and gallbladder, aiding in bile flow. Left Side-Lying Position:
The patient lies on their left side with a pillow between their knees.
This position promotes drainage from the stomach and pancreas, assisting in digestion. Supine Position:
The patient lies flat on their back with a pillow under their knees.
This position may be used for short periods, but prolonged supine positioning can increase pressure on the incision and lungs. High Fowler's Position:
The head of the bed is elevated 60-90 degrees, with knees slightly bent.
This position is often used for patients with respiratory issues or difficulty breathing, as it improves lung expansion.
Choice C rationale:
Performing drainage immediately after meals aids in efficient removal of bile and gastric secretions, preventing complications such as:
Bile Reflux:
Delayed drainage can cause bile to back up into the stomach, leading to nausea, vomiting, and discomfort. Infection:
Accumulation of fluids in the surgical site can increase the risk of bacterial growth and infection. Pancreatitis:
In rare cases, delayed drainage can cause inflammation of the pancreas due to obstruction of the pancreatic duct.
I'll address the rationales for choices A and D in the following sections.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Open-angle glaucoma is not characterized by an abnormally small angle.
The angle in open-angle glaucoma is open, but the drainage system is not working properly. Therefore, restoring a smaller angle would not be an effective treatment goal.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Eye drops used to treat open-angle glaucoma are not typically used for pain control.
While some individuals may experience mild discomfort associated with elevated eye pressure, pain is not a common symptom of open-angle glaucoma.
Additionally, eye drops used to treat glaucoma do not have anti-inflammatory properties to address swelling.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. While reducing excess eye pressure is an important initial goal of treatment, long-term management of open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing maintenance of normal eye pressure.
Simply reducing pressure temporarily is not sufficient to prevent vision loss.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. The primary goal of treatment for open-angle glaucoma is to maintain normal eye pressure over the long term. This is because elevated eye pressure can damage the optic nerve, leading to vision loss.
Eye drops are often used to lower eye pressure, and they typically need to be used for life to prevent vision loss.
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