The nurse is performing a routine dressing change for a patient with a stage 3 pressure injury that is red with significant granulation.
The wound has a gauze dressing covering the area. Which action should the nurse implement?
Leave the dressing off until consulting with the healthcare provider.
Apply a hydrocolloidal gel dressing.
Increase the frequency of the dressing changes.
Replace the gauze with a transparent dressing.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the dressing off would expose the wound to air and potential contamination, which could delay healing and increase the risk of infection.
While consulting with the healthcare provider is always an option, it's not necessary in this case as the nurse has the knowledge and skills to select an appropriate dressing.
Additionally, leaving the wound uncovered could cause pain and discomfort to the patient, as well as potentially disrupt the delicate granulation tissue that has already formed.
Choice C rationale:
Increasing the frequency of dressing changes could disrupt the healing process and irritate the wound bed.
It's generally recommended to change dressings only as often as necessary to keep the wound clean and moist. Excessive dressing changes can also be costly and time-consuming for both the patient and the healthcare provider. Choice D rationale:
Transparent dressings are not ideal for stage 3 pressure injuries with significant granulation tissue. These dressings are more suitable for wounds with minimal exudate and that are not actively healing. Transparent dressings can also adhere to the wound bed, causing pain and trauma upon removal.
Choice B rationale:
Hydrocolloidal gel dressings are a good choice for stage 3 pressure injuries with granulation tissue because they: Provide a moist wound environment, which promotes healing.
Absorb exudate, which helps to prevent maceration of the surrounding skin. Form a protective barrier over the wound, which helps to prevent infection.
Are comfortable for the patient and can be left in place for several days.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. The kidneys do play a role in acid-base balance, but they primarily eliminate acids other than carbon dioxide. They do not significantly convert carbon dioxide for elimination.
Elaboration: While the kidneys help regulate acid-base balance through reabsorption and excretion of bicarbonate and hydrogen ions, their role in carbon dioxide elimination is minimal. They primarily excrete acids like uric acid, phosphoric acid, and lactic acid.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Hyperventilation would decrease carbon dioxide levels, not contribute to respiratory acidosis. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by elevated carbon dioxide levels.
Elaboration: Hyperventilation leads to rapid and excessive breathing, causing a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. This can result in respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.
Choice C rationale:
Correct. Respiratory acidosis is caused by the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. This can happen due to impaired ventilation, such as in conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), pneumonia, or respiratory failure.
Elaboration: Carbon dioxide is produced as a byproduct of cellular metabolism. It is normally removed from the body through exhalation. When ventilation is impaired, carbon dioxide cannot be efficiently eliminated, leading to its buildup in the blood. This excess carbon dioxide reacts with water to form carbonic acid, lowering blood pH and causing respiratory acidosis.
Choice D rationale:
Incorrect. Low blood oxygen levels (hypoxemia) can stimulate the respiratory rate, but this would not directly cause respiratory acidosis. It might lead to hyperventilation, which could potentially cause respiratory alkalosis.
Elaboration: The body's respiratory center in the brainstem regulates breathing based on blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxemia triggers a compensatory increase in respiratory rate to enhance oxygen intake. However, this response does not directly contribute to respiratory acidosis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale:
Highlights daily use: Tiotropium is a long-acting bronchodilator, meaning it works to relax and open the airways over an extended period. It's crucial for managing COPD symptoms and preventing exacerbations. Daily use is essential to maintain its effectiveness.
Emphasizes the Handihaler: The Handihaler is the specific inhalation device designed for tiotropium delivery. It ensures proper medication administration and optimal lung deposition.
Demonstrates understanding of instructions: Choosing this option indicates the client has correctly grasped the intended frequency and method of use.
Choice A rationale:
Misunderstanding of purpose: Tiotropium is not a rescue inhaler for sudden shortness of breath. It's a maintenance medication that works gradually to improve lung function. For acute symptoms, a short-acting bronchodilator, like albuterol, is required.
Potential delay in appropriate treatment: Reliance on tiotropium for acute episodes could lead to delayed use of the correct rescue medication, potentially worsening symptoms and increasing risks.
Choice B rationale:
Potential side effect, not primary goal: While tiotropium may reduce sputum thickness in some individuals, it's not the primary aim of therapy. Focusing on this aspect could overlook its broader benefits in managing COPD.
Variable response: The extent of sputum thinning varies among individuals and shouldn't be the sole indicator of effectiveness.
Choice C rationale:
Potential for overmedication: Using multiple inhalers without clear guidance from a healthcare provider could increase the risk of excessive medication and adverse effects.
Importance of individualized regimens: Inhaler use depends on the specific medications prescribed and the severity of COPD. Healthcare professionals tailor regimens to individual needs.
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