The healthcare provider prescribes bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, tetracycline, and pantoprazole for a client with a Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection.
Prior to administering the
H. pylori treatment regimen, the nurse should review the electronic medical record for which medication?
Famotidine.
Loperamide.
Aspirin.
Ipratropium.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2RA) that decreases gastric acid secretion. It is often used to treat conditions such as ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and heartburn.
Bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, tetracycline, and pantoprazole are all medications used in the treatment of H. pylori infection. However, these medications can interact with famotidine, potentially leading to decreased efficacy or increased side effects.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to review the client's electronic medical record for any current or recent use of famotidine before administering the H. pylori treatment regimen. This will help to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the treatment.
Choice B rationale:
Loperamide is an antidiarrheal medication. It is not typically used in the treatment of H. pylori infection and is not known to interact with the medications used in this regimen.
Choice C rationale:
Aspirin is a salicylate medication that is often used to treat pain, fever, and inflammation. It can also be used to prevent blood clots. However, aspirin can interact with bismuth subsalicylate, potentially leading to increased risk of bleeding.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to assess the client's risk of bleeding before administering the H. pylori treatment regimen if they are also taking aspirin.
Choice D rationale:
Ipratropium is a bronchodilator medication that is used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is not typically used in the treatment of H. pylori infection and is not known to interact with the medications used in this regimen.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Autoimmune responses occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues. They are not typically triggered by allergens like bee stings.
Autoimmune responses often develop slowly over time and present with symptoms related to the specific tissues being attacked.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case, along with the specific symptoms of rash, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure, are not characteristic of an autoimmune response.
Choice B rationale:
Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve antibodies that target and destroy cells or tissues. These reactions often take hours or days to develop, rather than minutes.
Examples of type II hypersensitivity reactions include transfusion reactions, hemolytic disease of the newborn, and some autoimmune diseases.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case is not consistent with a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
Choice C rationale:
Cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions involve T cells that directly attack cells or tissues. These reactions typically take 1-3 days to develop.
Examples of cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions include contact dermatitis (e.g., poison ivy), graft-versus-host disease, and some drug reactions.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case, as well as the specific symptoms of rash, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure, are not characteristic of a cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
Choice D rationale:
IgE response hypersensitivity reactions are the most immediate type of allergic reaction.
They are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies, which bind to mast cells and basophils.
When an allergen (like bee venom) cross-links IgE antibodies on mast cells, it triggers the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators.
These mediators cause vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction, and mucus secretion, leading to the characteristic symptoms of an allergic reaction.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case, including rash, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure, are consistent with an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Wild rice is naturally gluten-free. It is not a grain, but rather a semi-aquatic grass seed. It is safe for individuals with celiac disease to consume.
Wild rice is a good source of nutrients. It is high in fiber, protein, and antioxidants, and it contains a variety of vitamins and minerals, including manganese, phosphorus, magnesium, and zinc. These nutrients can help to support overall health and well-being.
Wild rice can be a versatile ingredient in many dishes. It can be used in salads, soups, stews, pilafs, and even desserts.
Choice B rationale:
Oatmeal is not gluten-free. It is made from oats, which are a type of cereal grain that contains gluten. Individuals with celiac disease must avoid gluten, as it can trigger an autoimmune reaction that damages the small intestine.
Even small amounts of gluten can cause harm. Consuming even a small amount of oatmeal can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, fatigue, and headache in individuals with celiac disease.
Long-term damage can occur. If individuals with celiac disease continue to consume gluten, it can lead to long-term health problems, such as malnutrition, osteoporosis, and infertility.
Choice C rationale:
Corn chips are typically gluten-free. However, it is important to check the label to be sure, as some brands may contain gluten- containing ingredients, such as wheat flour or barley malt.
Reading labels is essential. Individuals with celiac disease should always read food labels carefully to ensure that products are gluten-free.
Choice D rationale:
Potatoes are naturally gluten-free. They are a safe and healthy food choice for individuals with celiac disease.
Potatoes are a versatile and nutritious food. They are a good source of carbohydrates, fiber, potassium, vitamin C, and other nutrients.
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