The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a group of clients who were found to be HIV positive within the last year. Members of the group express an interest in learning about the pathology of AIDS.
The nurse should explain that HIV acts in which way to suppress the immune system?
Proliferation of suppressor T-cells.
Deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells.
Increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM.
Destruction of helper T-cells and CD4 cells.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Suppressor T-cells (also known as regulatory T-cells) play a role in regulating the immune response, but their proliferation is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. In fact, HIV can disrupt the function of suppressor T-cells, leading to an impaired ability to control immune responses.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are important for killing infected cells, but their deficiency is not the direct cause of immune suppression in HIV. However, HIV can indirectly lead to a deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells by disrupting their production and function.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and IgM is an early antibody produced in response to infection. However, an increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not characteristic of HIV infection. In fact, HIV can impair B-cell function, leading to decreased antibody production.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. HIV primarily targets and destroys helper T-cells (also known as CD4+ T-cells). These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells. The depletion of helper T-cells leads to a progressive weakening of the immune system, rendering the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.
Specific mechanisms of CD4+ T-cell destruction by HIV:
Direct infection and lysis: HIV can directly infect CD4+ T-cells and replicate within them, eventually leading to the death of the infected cells.
CD4+ T-cell apoptosis: HIV can induce programmed cell death (apoptosis) in CD4+ T-cells through various mechanisms, including the activation of pro-apoptotic pathways and the disruption of anti-apoptotic signals.
Immune dysregulation: HIV infection can also dysregulate the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation and immune activation. This can further contribute to CD4+ T-cell depletion and dysfunction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Chronic pain is a significant concern for this client, but it is not the immediate priority. Pain can be managed with medications and comfort measures, while aspiration can be life-threatening.
Tissue destruction by the tumor is likely contributing to the pain, but addressing the risk of aspiration takes precedence.
Uncontrolled pain can exacerbate anxiety and make it difficult to focus on other interventions, but ensuring airway safety is paramount.
Choice B rationale:
Anxiety and grieving are expected reactions to a diagnosis of esophageal cancer, and they should be addressed as part of the client's care plan. However, they are not the immediate priority in this case.
The progression of the disease is a significant stressor, but attending to the risk of aspiration is essential for the client's safety. Psychological distress can negatively impact coping and quality of life, but addressing physical needs takes precedence.
Choice D rationale:
Imbalanced nutrition is a concern for this client due to dysphagia and anorexia. However, it is not the immediate priority. Nutritional interventions can be implemented once the risk of aspiration is addressed.
Difficulty swallowing can lead to inadequate intake and malnutrition, but ensuring airway safety is the primary concern.
Anorexia can further contribute to nutritional deficits, but preventing aspiration is the most pressing issue.
Choice C is the priority nursing problem because:
The client's dysphagia puts them at immediate risk for aspiration, which can lead to pneumonia, respiratory failure, and even death.
Addressing the risk of aspiration is essential to ensure the client's safety and prevent life-threatening complications. It's crucial to implement interventions to minimize the risk of aspiration, such as:
Elevating the head of the bed during meals and for 30-60 minutes after eating Thickening liquids and pureeing foods
Encouraging small, frequent meals
Monitoring for signs of aspiration, such as coughing, choking, or difficulty breathing
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Open-angle glaucoma is not characterized by an abnormally small angle.
The angle in open-angle glaucoma is open, but the drainage system is not working properly. Therefore, restoring a smaller angle would not be an effective treatment goal.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Eye drops used to treat open-angle glaucoma are not typically used for pain control.
While some individuals may experience mild discomfort associated with elevated eye pressure, pain is not a common symptom of open-angle glaucoma.
Additionally, eye drops used to treat glaucoma do not have anti-inflammatory properties to address swelling.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. While reducing excess eye pressure is an important initial goal of treatment, long-term management of open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing maintenance of normal eye pressure.
Simply reducing pressure temporarily is not sufficient to prevent vision loss.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. The primary goal of treatment for open-angle glaucoma is to maintain normal eye pressure over the long term. This is because elevated eye pressure can damage the optic nerve, leading to vision loss.
Eye drops are often used to lower eye pressure, and they typically need to be used for life to prevent vision loss.
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