A teenage client is admitted to the emergency department following a bee sting. The client arrives with a body rash and 30 minutes later becomes short of breath.
The client's vital signs are a heart rate of 130 beats/minute, respirations of 40 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 90/52 mm Hg. The client is exhibiting clinical manifestations of which type of immune reaction?
Autoimmune response.
Type II hypersensitivity.
Cell-mediated hypersensitivity.
IgE response hypersensitivity.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Autoimmune responses occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues. They are not typically triggered by allergens like bee stings.
Autoimmune responses often develop slowly over time and present with symptoms related to the specific tissues being attacked.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case, along with the specific symptoms of rash, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure, are not characteristic of an autoimmune response.
Choice B rationale:
Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve antibodies that target and destroy cells or tissues. These reactions often take hours or days to develop, rather than minutes.
Examples of type II hypersensitivity reactions include transfusion reactions, hemolytic disease of the newborn, and some autoimmune diseases.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case is not consistent with a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
Choice C rationale:
Cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions involve T cells that directly attack cells or tissues. These reactions typically take 1-3 days to develop.
Examples of cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions include contact dermatitis (e.g., poison ivy), graft-versus-host disease, and some drug reactions.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case, as well as the specific symptoms of rash, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure, are not characteristic of a cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
Choice D rationale:
IgE response hypersensitivity reactions are the most immediate type of allergic reaction.
They are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies, which bind to mast cells and basophils.
When an allergen (like bee venom) cross-links IgE antibodies on mast cells, it triggers the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators.
These mediators cause vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction, and mucus secretion, leading to the characteristic symptoms of an allergic reaction.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case, including rash, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure, are consistent with an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Total protein is a measure of the overall protein content in the blood. It includes albumin and globulin.
While it can be helpful in assessing nutritional status and liver function, it is not directly relevant to the client's current symptoms of pallor and fatigue.
Decreased total protein can indicate malnutrition or liver disease, but these conditions would not typically cause the specific symptoms of pallor and fatigue.
Therefore, total protein is not the most important laboratory value to review in this case.
Choice B rationale:
Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body.
Paleness (pallor) is a common sign of anemia, which is a condition characterized by a low hemoglobin level. Fatigue is also a common symptom of anemia, as the body's tissues are not receiving enough oxygen.
Diclofenac, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, which can lead to anemia. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to review the client's hemoglobin level to assess for potential anemia.
Choice C rationale:
Glucose is a type of sugar that the body uses for energy.
Abnormal glucose levels can cause various symptoms, including fatigue. However, glucose levels would not typically cause pallor.
Additionally, there is no indication in the question stem that the client has any risk factors for diabetes or other disorders that affect glucose metabolism.
Therefore, glucose is not the most likely cause of the client's symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Sodium is an electrolyte that helps regulate fluid balance in the body.
Abnormal sodium levels can cause various symptoms, including fatigue and weakness. However, sodium levels would not typically cause pallor.
Additionally, there is no indication in the question stem that the client has any risk factors for electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, sodium is not the most likely cause of the client's symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Direct identification of the causative organism: A culture for sensitive organisms is the most direct and definitive way to identify the specific bacteria or other microorganisms that are causing the infection in the wound. This information is crucial for guiding the selection of the most appropriate antibiotic therapy.
Tailored antibiotic therapy: By knowing the exact organism responsible, healthcare providers can prescribe antibiotics that are specifically effective against that organism, ensuring optimal treatment and reducing the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Informed infection control measures: The results of the culture can also inform appropriate infection control measures to prevent the spread of the infection to other patients or healthcare workers.
Monitoring treatment effectiveness: Cultures can also be used to monitor the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy. If the culture results show that the bacteria are no longer present after a course of antibiotics, this indicates that the treatment has been successful.
Choice B rationale:
Non-specific marker of inflammation: C-reactive protein (CRP) is a non-specific marker of inflammation that can be elevated in various conditions, including infections, but also in non-infectious conditions such as autoimmune diseases and trauma.
Limited diagnostic value for wound infections: While an elevated CRP level may suggest the presence of an infection, it does not provide information about the specific causative organism, which is essential for guiding antibiotic therapy.
Supplementary role: CRP levels can be used in conjunction with other clinical findings and laboratory tests to assess the severity of an infection and monitor the response to treatment, but it should not be relied upon as a sole diagnostic tool for wound infections.
Choice C rationale:
Not directly indicative of wound infection: Blood pH level primarily reflects the acid-base balance of the body and is not directly indicative of a wound infection.
Alterations in other conditions: Blood pH can be altered in various conditions, including respiratory and metabolic disorders, and is not specific to wound infections.
Limited role in diagnosis: While significant alterations in blood pH may suggest a serious systemic infection, it does not provide information about the location or causative organism of the infection.
Choice D rationale:
Not directly related to wound infection: Serum blood glucose level is primarily used to monitor diabetes and is not directly related to wound infections.
Impaired wound healing in diabetes: While elevated blood glucose levels can impair wound healing and increase the risk of infections in diabetic patients, it is not a diagnostic test for wound infections in general.
Secondary consideration: Blood glucose levels may be considered as part of the overall assessment of a patient with a wound infection, particularly in those with diabetes, but it is not a primary diagnostic tool.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today