A client who has had a laryngectomy and tracheostomy frequently expectorates copious amounts of purulent secretions.
When changing the ties of the tracheostomy tube, which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Leave the old ties in place until the new ones are secure.

Secure tracheostomy ties by making knots close to the tube.

Remove ties to secure a disposable, soft foam collar with self-adhesive fastening.

Place knots of the ties laterally to prevent irritation and pressure.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

Maintains airway patency: Leaving the old ties in place until the new ones are secure ensures that the tracheostomy tube remains in the correct position and prevents accidental decannulation, which could obstruct the airway and lead to respiratory distress or arrest. This is the most important priority in tracheostomy care.

Prevents tube displacement: Accidental decannulation can occur during tie changes, especially in patients with copious secretions or who are restless or agitated. Keeping the old ties in place acts as a safety measure to keep the tube in position even if the new ties are not immediately secured.

Allows for adjustments: If the new ties are not tied correctly or are too tight, the old ties can be loosened or removed to make adjustments without compromising the airway.

Minimizes anxiety: Leaving the old ties in place can help to reduce anxiety in patients who are apprehensive about the tie- changing process, as it provides a sense of security and ensures that the tube will not be dislodged.

Choice B rationale:

Increases risk of skin irritation: Knots tied close to the tube can rub against the skin, causing irritation, discomfort, and potential skin breakdown, especially in patients with sensitive skin or who have copious secretions.

Impinges on blood flow: Tight knots can also constrict blood vessels, potentially impairing circulation to the skin around the tracheostomy site.

Difficult to remove in emergencies: Knots tied too close to the tube can be challenging to untie quickly in case of an emergency, such as accidental decannulation or the need to suction secretions.

Choice C rationale:

Not appropriate for all patients: Disposable, soft foam collars with self-adhesive fastening may not be suitable for patients with copious secretions, as the adhesive may not adhere well to moist skin.

May not provide adequate support: These collars may not provide the same level of support as traditional tracheostomy ties, especially in patients with active neck movement or who are at risk of accidental decannulation.

Potential for skin irritation: The adhesive on the collar can also irritate the skin around the tracheostomy site in some patients.

Choice D rationale:

May not prevent irritation: Placing knots laterally may not completely eliminate the risk of skin irritation, as the ties can still rub against the skin with neck movement or when the patient is lying down.

Could lead to accidental loosening: Knots tied laterally may be more prone to accidental loosening, especially if the patient is restless or agitated.

Nursing Test Bank

Test Bank #1: RN Pharmacology Exams Test Bank #2: RN Medical-Surgical Exams Test Bank #3: RN Fundamentals Exams Test Bank #4: RN Maternal-Newborn Exams Test Bank #5: RN Anatomy and Physiology Exams Test Bank #6: RN Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Test Bank #7: RN Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Test Bank #9: RN Adult Health Test Bank #10: RN Dosage Calculation Test Bank #11: RN Community Health Exams Test Bank #12: RN Psychology Exams Test Bank #13: RN Nursing Care Of Children Test Bank #14: RN Foundations of Nursing Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exam #1: RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 proctored exam Exam #2: Ati rn vati comprehensive predictor proctored exam Exam #3: Ati Rn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2023 Exam #4: Rn Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Proctored Exam - St. Joseph Exam #5: RN Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam (National U CA San Diego) Exam #6: Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake proctored exam Exam #7: RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam Exam #8: Hesi RN Exit proctored exam Exam #9: Hesi rn exit proctored exam Exam #10: Hesi Rn compass exit B proctored exam

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Incorrect. Suppressor T-cells (also known as regulatory T-cells) play a role in regulating the immune response, but their proliferation is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. In fact, HIV can disrupt the function of suppressor T-cells, leading to an impaired ability to control immune responses.

Choice B rationale:

Incorrect. Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are important for killing infected cells, but their deficiency is not the direct cause of immune suppression in HIV. However, HIV can indirectly lead to a deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells by disrupting their production and function.

Choice C rationale:

Incorrect. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and IgM is an early antibody produced in response to infection. However, an increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not characteristic of HIV infection. In fact, HIV can impair B-cell function, leading to decreased antibody production.

Choice D rationale:

Correct. HIV primarily targets and destroys helper T-cells (also known as CD4+ T-cells). These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells. The depletion of helper T-cells leads to a progressive weakening of the immune system, rendering the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.

Specific mechanisms of CD4+ T-cell destruction by HIV:

Direct infection and lysis: HIV can directly infect CD4+ T-cells and replicate within them, eventually leading to the death of the infected cells.

CD4+ T-cell apoptosis: HIV can induce programmed cell death (apoptosis) in CD4+ T-cells through various mechanisms, including the activation of pro-apoptotic pathways and the disruption of anti-apoptotic signals.

Immune dysregulation: HIV infection can also dysregulate the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation and immune activation. This can further contribute to CD4+ T-cell depletion and dysfunction.

A. Hypothermia. B. Tachypnea. C. Hypotension. D. Hypertension.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Hypothermia is a condition in which the body's core temperature falls below 95°F (35°C). It is not directly indicated by the client's vital signs as presented in the question.

Other factors that would more strongly suggest hypothermia include exposure to cold environments, immersion in cold water, or impaired thermoregulation due to conditions like hypothyroidism or alcohol intoxication.

Choice C rationale:

Hypotension is a condition in which blood pressure is abnormally low. It is also not directly indicated by the client's vital signs as presented in the question.

Hypertension, on the other hand, is a condition in which blood pressure is abnormally high.

The client's history of hypertension, and the fact that he takes enalapril (an antihypertensive medication), suggests that he may be more likely to experience hypertension than hypotension.

Choice D rationale:

Hypertension, as mentioned above, is a condition in which blood pressure is abnormally high.

While it's possible that the client is experiencing hypertension, the question specifically asks about the condition indicated by the client's vital signs.

Tachypnea, or rapid breathing, is a more direct indication of the client's respiratory distress, which is a common symptom of pneumonia.

Choice B rationale:

Tachypnea is the most likely condition indicated by the client's vital signs.

Tachypnea is often a sign of respiratory distress, which can be caused by a variety of conditions, including pneumonia. When a person has pneumonia, their lungs become inflamed and filled with fluid, making it difficult to breathe.

This can lead to rapid, shallow breathing, which is called tachypnea.

Other signs of respiratory distress that may be present in a client with pneumonia include: Coughing

Wheezing Chest pain

Feeling short of breath

Use of accessory muscles to breathe (e.g., muscles in the neck and chest) Nasal flaring

Cyanosis (a bluish tint to the skin)

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A client who has had a laryngectomy and tracheostomy frequently expectorates copious amounts of purulent secretions.When changing the ties of the tracheostomy tube, which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a group of clients who were found to be HIV positive within the last year. Members of the group express an interest in learning about the pathology of AIDS.The nurse should explain that HIV acts in which way to suppress the immune system?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Exhibits A nurse is reviewing the client’s condition. Based on the exhibits provided, what is the most likely diagnosis for this client?

A client with symptoms of influenza that started the previous day asks the clinic nurse about taking oseltamivir to treat the infection.Which response should the nurse provide?

The nurse is discussing dietary choices with a client who is newly diagnosed with celiac disease. Which menu choice by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

While changing a client’s postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound.Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, which of the client’s laboratory values should the nurse note?

A client with psoriasis returns to the clinic reporting the persistence of several silvery, scaly areas on the elbows and palms that frequently burn and sometimes bleed.Which prescription should the nurse teach the client to use for the skin condition?

The patient’s vital signs are as follows: Temperature 97.5 F (36.4 C), Heart rate 104 beats/minute, Respirations 29 breaths/minute, Blood pressure 119/82 mm Hg, Oxygen saturation 89%. Oxygen mask applied.What should the nurse do next?

A client presents to the emergency department with muscle aches, headache, fever, and describes a recent loss of taste and smell.The nurse obtains a nasal swab for COVID-19 testing. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

A client who has had a laryngectomy and tracheostomy frequently expectorates copious amounts of purulent secretions.
When changing the ties of the tracheostomy tube, which action is most important for the nurse to take?