The patient's Hemoglobin A1C today is 8.29% and was 7.59% three months ago. The reference range is 4 to 5.99%. What is the likely diagnosis?

Diabetes Mellitus

Hypoglycemia

Hyperglycemia

Prediabetes

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is a blood test that reflects a person's average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. It's considered the gold standard for diagnosing and monitoring diabetes.

An HbA1C level of 8.29% is significantly elevated above the reference range of 4-5.99%, indicating a high probability of diabetes.

The patient's HbA1C has also increased from 7.59% three months ago, suggesting a worsening of glycemic control.

Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by elevated blood glucose levels due to impaired insulin production or action, or both.

Common symptoms of diabetes include increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, blurred vision, and slow-healing wounds.

Early diagnosis and treatment of diabetes are crucial to prevent complications such as heart disease, stroke, kidney disease, nerve damage, and vision loss.

Choice B rationale:

Hypoglycemia refers to abnormally low blood glucose levels, typically below 70 mg/dL. It's often caused by excessive insulin or medication, missed meals, or strenuous exercise.

The patient's HbA1C level of 8.29% does not support a diagnosis of hypoglycemia.

Choice C rationale:

Hyperglycemia refers to abnormally high blood glucose levels, typically above 180 mg/dL. It can be caused by diabetes, stress, infection, or certain medications.

While the patient's HbA1C level does indicate hyperglycemia, it's specifically the pattern of elevated HbA1C over time that points to a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, rather than transient hyperglycemia.

Choice D rationale:

Prediabetes is a condition where blood glucose levels are higher than normal, but not high enough to be classified as diabetes. People with prediabetes are at increased risk of developing diabetes.

The patient's HbA1C level of 8.29% is above the threshold for prediabetes, which is typically 5.7-6.4%.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Lactulose directly addresses the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy, which is the accumulation of ammonia in the blood. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can impair brain function, leading to confusion, lethargy, and even coma. Lactulose works by trapping ammonia in the colon, where it can be safely excreted in the stool. This decrease in ammonia levels in the blood allows for the improvement of mental status.

Studies have consistently shown that lactulose therapy can significantly improve mental function in patients with hepatic encephalopathy. This improvement is often seen within a few days of starting treatment.

The nurse should assess the client's mental status regularly to monitor for improvement. This assessment should include evaluating the client's level of consciousness, orientation, attention, memory, and speech.

Improved mental status is a critical therapeutic goal in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy. It allows patients to regain their independence and participate more fully in their care.

Choice B rationale:

While lactulose can cause diarrhea, which may lead to a slight increase in urine output, this is not the primary therapeutic response that the nurse should expect.

The increase in urine output is typically secondary to the diarrhea and does not directly reflect a reduction in ammonia levels or improvement in mental status.

Choice C rationale:

Lactulose does cause diarrhea, which is a common side effect of the medication.

However, the goal of lactulose therapy is not to reduce the number of liquid stools but rather to trap ammonia in the colon and promote its excretion.

The nurse should monitor the client's stool frequency and consistency to ensure that they are not experiencing excessive diarrhea, which could lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

Choice D rationale:

While improved mental status may eventually lead to improved mobility, it is not the most immediate or direct therapeutic response that the nurse should expect from lactulose therapy.

The ability to ambulate independently is more likely to be a long-term goal of treatment, rather than an immediate response to lactulose.

A. Pneumonia B. Tuberculosis C. Bronchitis D. Pulmonary Embolism

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Pneumonia is the most likely diagnosis given the rapid development of pulmonary infiltrates within a 24-hour period. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. It typically presents with symptoms such as fever, cough, shortness of breath, and chest pain. The presence of pulmonary infiltrates on imaging studies, such as a chest X-ray, is a key diagnostic feature of pneumonia.

The distribution of the infiltrates, involving the lower lobes with a predominance on the right side, is also consistent with pneumonia. This is because the lower lobes are more susceptible to pneumonia due to their anatomy and gravity.

The absence of active processes on Day 1 makes other diagnoses less likely. For example, tuberculosis typically develops more slowly over weeks or months, and bronchitis usually does not cause pulmonary infiltrates.

Pulmonary embolism can cause pulmonary infiltrates, but it would typically be associated with other symptoms such as sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and tachycardia.

Choice B rationale:

Tuberculosis is a chronic infection that typically develops slowly over weeks or months. It is less likely to cause rapid development of pulmonary infiltrates as seen in this case.

Tuberculosis often involves the upper lobes of the lungs, and it may be associated with other symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss.

Choice C rationale:

Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchi, the large airways that carry air to the lungs. It typically causes a cough, but it does not usually cause pulmonary infiltrates.

Bronchitis is often caused by a virus, and it usually resolves on its own within a few weeks.

Choice D rationale:

Pulmonary embolism is a blockage of a pulmonary artery, one of the blood vessels that carries blood to the lungs. It can cause pulmonary infiltrates, but it would typically be associated with other symptoms such as sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and tachycardia.

Pulmonary embolism is often caused by a blood clot that travels from a vein in the leg to the lungs.

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The patient's Hemoglobin A1C today is 8.29% and was 7.59% three months ago. The reference range is 4 to 5.99%. What is the likely diagnosis?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has been administered lactulose for several days.Which therapeutic response should the nurse expect for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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