A client with a cervical spinal injury (C7) is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should first assess the client for which precipitating factor?
An acutely distended bladder.
Profuse forehead diaphoresis.
Skeletal traction misalignment.
A severe pounding headache.
The Correct Answer is A
A. One of the most common triggers is a distended bladder. When the bladder becomes full, it sends signals to the spinal cord, but due to the injury, these signals are unable to pass beyond the level of injury. This results in uncontrolled sympathetic activation, leading to symptoms such as hypertension, sweating, and headache.
B. Forehead diaphoresis, or sweating, is a potential symptom of autonomic dysreflexia. However, it is more of a consequence rather than a precipitating factor. It occurs as a result of sympathetic nervous system activation in response to the triggering stimulus.
C. Skeletal traction misalignment is not a common precipitating factor for autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is typically triggered by stimuli related to visceral or autonomic reflexes, such as bladder distention or bowel impaction, rather than mechanical issues like traction misalignment.
D. A severe pounding headache can occur as a symptom of autonomic dysreflexia, but it is not the primary precipitating factor. The headache is a result of the sudden increase in blood pressure that occurs during autonomic dysreflexia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. An ANC of 500/mm3 (0.5 x 10/L) is indicative of severe neutropenia, which places the client at a significantly increased risk of developing infections due to the decreased ability of the immune system to fight off pathogens. Placing the client in protective isolation is essential to minimize the risk of exposure to infectious agents that could lead to severe infections
A. While reviewing the need for pneumococcal vaccine is important for preventing infections in immunocompromised clients, it may not be the most immediate priority in this scenario.
B. Implementing bleeding precautions is relevant for clients with thrombocytopenia but is not the most critical intervention for a client with severe neutropenia.
D. Assessing vital signs every 4 hours is a routine nursing intervention, but it may not directly address the heightened risk of infection associated with severe neutropenia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Occult positive emesis refers to vomiting that occurs without the client's awareness, meaning that the vomitus may not be easily visible or readily apparent. Vomiting can lead to significant fluid loss and dehydration, which is particularly concerning in a client who has undergone a biliopancreatic diversion procedure (BDP).
A. Loose bowel movements may indicate gastrointestinal disturbances or malabsorption issues commonly seen after biliopancreatic diversion procedure (BDP). BDP involves rerouting a significant portion of the small intestine, which can affect digestion and absorption of nutrients and fluids.
C. Strong foul-smelling flatus may indicate bacterial overgrowth or malabsorption issues in the gastrointestinal tract, which can occur after BDP. While foul-smelling flatus can be uncomfortable and indicative of gastrointestinal disturbances, it may not require immediate intervention.
D. Poor night vision may suggest vitamin deficiencies, particularly deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins such as vitamin A, which can occur after BDP due to reduced absorption of nutrients. While poor night vision should be addressed to prevent long-term complications, it may not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.
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