A client with a cervical spinal injury (C7) is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should first assess the client for which precipitating factor?
An acutely distended bladder.
Profuse forehead diaphoresis.
Skeletal traction misalignment.
A severe pounding headache.
The Correct Answer is A
A. One of the most common triggers is a distended bladder. When the bladder becomes full, it sends signals to the spinal cord, but due to the injury, these signals are unable to pass beyond the level of injury. This results in uncontrolled sympathetic activation, leading to symptoms such as hypertension, sweating, and headache.
B. Forehead diaphoresis, or sweating, is a potential symptom of autonomic dysreflexia. However, it is more of a consequence rather than a precipitating factor. It occurs as a result of sympathetic nervous system activation in response to the triggering stimulus.
C. Skeletal traction misalignment is not a common precipitating factor for autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is typically triggered by stimuli related to visceral or autonomic reflexes, such as bladder distention or bowel impaction, rather than mechanical issues like traction misalignment.
D. A severe pounding headache can occur as a symptom of autonomic dysreflexia, but it is not the primary precipitating factor. The headache is a result of the sudden increase in blood pressure that occurs during autonomic dysreflexia.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Vital sign measurements, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature, are essential for assessing the client's hemodynamic stability and overall condition. A rigid abdomen with rebound tenderness suggests a potential surgical emergency, such as bowel perforation, which could lead to sepsis and hemodynamic instability. Therefore, obtaining vital sign measurements promptly will help determine the severity of the client's condition and guide further interventions.
A. Encouraging ambulation would not be appropriate in this situation because it could exacerbate the client's discomfort and potentially worsen any abdominal pain or tenderness. Ambulation is not the priority when a client presents with signs of a possible bowel perforation.
B. Measure capillary glucose level: While monitoring blood glucose levels is important, especially in clients receiving corticosteroid treatment, it is not the priority when the client is presenting with symptoms suggestive of a serious complication such as bowel perforation. Immediate assessment and intervention to address the abdominal rigidity and rebound tenderness are needed before other assessments can be performed.
C. While bloody stools are a common symptom of IBD exacerbation, the presence of a rigid abdomen with rebound tenderness suggests a more urgent issue, such as bowel perforation, that requires immediate attention. Monitoring for bloody stools should occur concurrently with assessing and managing the client's acute abdominal symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Rheumatoid factor (RF) is an autoantibody directed against the Fc portion of immunoglobulin G (IgG). In RA, it is an indication of the autoimmune nature of the disease, where the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues, particularly the synovial membranes in the joints, leading to inflammation, pain, and joint damage.
B. While the presence of an elevated serum rheumatoid factor is associated with the autoimmune process underlying RA, it does not necessarily correlate with disease severity or progression.
C. Rheumatoid factor has no correlation with renal involvement of RA
D. RA is an indicator of autoimmunity in the joint but not necessarily the onset of joint degeneration.
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