A client with a cervical spinal injury (C7) is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should first assess the client for which precipitating factor?

An acutely distended bladder.

Profuse forehead diaphoresis.

Skeletal traction misalignment.

A severe pounding headache.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   One of the most common triggers is a distended bladder. When the bladder becomes full, it sends signals to the spinal cord, but due to the injury, these signals are unable to pass beyond the level of injury. This results in uncontrolled sympathetic activation, leading to symptoms such as hypertension, sweating, and headache.
B.   Forehead diaphoresis, or sweating, is a potential symptom of autonomic dysreflexia. However, it is more of a consequence rather than a precipitating factor. It occurs as a result of sympathetic nervous system activation in response to the triggering stimulus.
C.   Skeletal traction misalignment is not a common precipitating factor for autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is typically triggered by stimuli related to visceral or autonomic reflexes, such as bladder distention or bowel impaction, rather than mechanical issues like traction misalignment.
D.   A severe pounding headache can occur as a symptom of autonomic dysreflexia, but it is not the primary precipitating factor. The headache is a result of the sudden increase in blood pressure that occurs during autonomic dysreflexia.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Occult positive emesis refers to vomiting that occurs without the client's awareness, meaning that the vomitus may not be easily visible or readily apparent. Vomiting can lead to significant fluid loss and dehydration, which is particularly concerning in a client who has undergone a biliopancreatic diversion procedure (BDP).
A. Loose bowel movements may indicate gastrointestinal disturbances or malabsorption issues commonly seen after biliopancreatic diversion procedure (BDP). BDP involves rerouting a significant portion of the small intestine, which can affect digestion and absorption of nutrients and fluids.
C. Strong foul-smelling flatus may indicate bacterial overgrowth or malabsorption issues in the gastrointestinal tract, which can occur after BDP. While foul-smelling flatus can be uncomfortable and indicative of gastrointestinal disturbances, it may not require immediate intervention.
D. Poor night vision may suggest vitamin deficiencies, particularly deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins such as vitamin A, which can occur after BDP due to reduced absorption of nutrients. While poor night vision should be addressed to prevent long-term complications, it may not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

A. Sitting upright B. Tightness in the chest C. Medication compliance D. Respirations of 28 breaths/minute E. Restlessness F. Dyspnea G. Pulse oxygenation of 85%

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E","F","G"]

Explanation

A. Patients with respiratory distress often prefer to sit upright or in a tripod position to ease breathing by allowing maximal lung expansion. Sitting upright helps relieve pressure on the diaphragm and allows better air exchange in the lungs.
B. Chest tightness is a common symptom of various respiratory conditions, such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), or pneumonia. It can result from bronchoconstriction, inflammation, or accumulation of mucus in the airways, leading to difficulty breathing.
D. An increased respiratory rate (tachypnea) may indicate respiratory distress or difficulty breathing. Tachypnea is a compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen intake or remove carbon dioxide from the body when lung function is compromised.
E. Restlessness can be a cue for a respiratory problem. Patients experiencing respiratory distress may exhibit restlessness due to hypoxia (low oxygen levels), discomfort, or anxiety related to difficulty breathing.
F. Dyspnea, or shortness of breath, is a significant cue for a respiratory problem. It is a common symptom of various respiratory conditions, including asthma, COPD, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism. Dyspnea may range from mild to severe and can significantly impact the patient's quality of life and functional status.
G. A pulse oxygenation level of 85% indicates hypoxemia (low blood oxygen levels) and is a significant cue for a respiratory problem. Hypoxemia can result from various respiratory conditions or inadequate ventilation and may lead to tissue hypoxia and organ dysfunction if left untreated.
C. Medication compliance is not directly indicative of a respiratory problem. However, it may be relevant to managing respiratory conditions if the patient requires medications such as bronchodilators or corticosteroids to control symptoms or prevent exacerbations.
H. While an elevated heart rate (tachycardia) can be associated with respiratory distress, it is not specific to respiratory problems and may occur in response to other stressors or medical conditions.
I. Body mass index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on height and weight and is not directly indicative of a respiratory problem. However, obesity is a risk factor for respiratory conditions such as obstructive sleep apnea and obesity hypoventilation syndrome.

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A client with a cervical spinal injury (C7) is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should first assess the client for which precipitating factor?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who had a biliopancreatic diversion procedure (BDP) 3 months ago is admitted with severe dehydration. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Patient Data Exhibits What finding(s) are cues for a respiratory problem? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E","F","G"]

Explanation

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