A client who is 36 weeks pregnant is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia.
She has a history of chronic hypertension and gestational diabetes.
The nurse anticipates that the client will receive which of the following medications to prevent seizures?
Hydralazine
Nifedipine
Magnesium sulfate
Diazepam
The Correct Answer is C
Magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent and treat seizures in people with severe preeclampsia and eclampsia. It is an anticonvulsant medication that reduces the risk of eclampsia by 50%.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine is a blood pressure medication that can lower blood pressure in people with preeclampsia or eclampsia, but it does not prevent seizures.
Choice B is wrong because nifedipine is another blood pressure medication that can lower blood pressure in people with preeclampsia or eclampsia, but it does not prevent seizures.
Choice D is wrong because diazepam is an anticonvulsant medication that was previously used to treat eclamptic seizures, but it has been replaced by magnesium sulfate as the preferred drug due to its better safety and efficacy. Diazepam can also cause sedation and respiratory depression in the mother and the fetus.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are below 140/90 mm Hg, for proteinuria are below 300 mg/24 hours, for platelet count are 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter, for liver enzymes are 7 to 56 units per liter for alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and 10 to 40 units per liter for aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and for magnesium levels are 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because bed rest can lower blood pressure and improve blood flow to the placenta and the fetus.The left lateral position reduces pressure on the inferior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the lower body to the heart.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, not mild preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because monitoring the fetal heart rate and movement is important, but not the priority for this client.
Choice D is wrong because educating the client about the signs of eclampsia is not urgent and may not prevent the progression of preeclampsia.Some signs of eclampsia are severe headaches, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and seizures.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Deep tendon reflexes.
The nurse should monitor the client’s deep tendon reflexes to assess for signs of magnesium toxicity, which can cause respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and coma.Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia, but it can also have adverse effects on the neuromuscular system.
Choice A is wrong because blood pressure is not the most important assessment for a client receiving magnesium sulfate.
Blood pressure is a manifestation of preeclampsia, but it does not indicate magnesium toxicity.
Choice B is wrong because urine output is not the most important assessment for a client receiving magnesium sulfate.
Urine output should be at least 25 to 30 mL/hr to promote adequate excretion of magnesium, but it does not reflect the level of magnesium in the blood.
Choice D is wrong because fetal heart rate is not the most important assessment for a client receiving magnesium sulfate.
Fetal heart rate is important to monitor for signs of fetal distress, but it does not indicate maternal magnesium toxicity.
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