A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with pre-eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg.
What is the rationale for using this medication?
It reduces cerebral edema and prevents seizures
It increases uteroplacental perfusion and fetal oxygenation
It decreases proteinuria and prevents renal damage
It relaxes smooth muscle and lowers blood pressure
The Correct Answer is D
This is the rationale for using this medication in a client with pre-eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg. High blood pressure in pre-eclampsia can cause damage to the kidneys, liver, brain, and other organs, and can also increase the risk of complications for the baby.
Therefore, lowering blood pressure with hydralazine can help prevent or reduce these adverse outcomes.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce cerebral edema or prevent seizures. These are symptoms of eclampsia, a more severe form of pre-eclampsia that requires different treatment.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not increase uteroplacental perfusion or fetal oxygenation. These are affected by other factors such as the placental function, maternal position, and fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because hydralazine does not decrease proteinuria or prevent renal damage.
Proteinuria is a sign of kidney impairment that occurs in pre-eclampsia, but it is not directly affected by hydralazine. Renal damage can be prevented by controlling blood pressure and avoiding nephrotoxic drugs.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because bed rest can lower blood pressure and improve blood flow to the placenta and the fetus.The left lateral position reduces pressure on the inferior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the lower body to the heart.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, not mild preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because monitoring the fetal heart rate and movement is important, but not the priority for this client.
Choice D is wrong because educating the client about the signs of eclampsia is not urgent and may not prevent the progression of preeclampsia.Some signs of eclampsia are severe headaches, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and seizures.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hour.This indicates magnesium toxicity and requires immediate intervention because it means the kidneys are not functioning properly and magnesium is not being excreted.Magnesium toxicity can cause life-threatening complications such as respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and coma.
B. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute is normal and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.A respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths/minute or more than 20 breaths/minute would be abnormal and require further assessment.
C. Deep tendon reflexes 1+ are normal and do not indicate magnesium toxicity.A loss of deep tendon reflexes or clonus would indicate magnesium toxicity and require immediate intervention.
D. Serum magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is within the therapeutic range for preeclampsia and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.
The therapeutic range for preeclampsia is 4 to 7 mg/dL.A serum magnesium level of more than 8 mg/dL would indicate magnesium toxicity and require immediate intervention.
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